Full Mock Test · Questions with answers

DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 2

All 200 questions of DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 2 with the correct answer and a solution. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the paper as a timed online test.

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General Awareness 20 questions

Q1
The India AI Impact Summit 2026 was anchored around which three foundational 'Sutras'?
  1. APeace, Prosperity and Partnership
  2. BPeople, Planet and Progress
  3. CData, Design and Delivery
  4. DSafety, Security and Sustainability
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Correct answer: (B) People, Planet and Progress

Q2
Who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of West Bengal in May 2026?
  1. AMamata Banerjee
  2. BSamik Bhattacharya
  3. CSukanta Majumdar
  4. DSuvendu Adhikari
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Correct answer: (D) Suvendu Adhikari

Q3
According to the Ministry of Defence, India's indigenous defence production reached a record value of how much in FY 2025–26?
  1. A₹1.27 lakh crore
  2. B₹1.50 lakh crore
  3. C₹1.78 lakh crore
  4. D₹2.10 lakh crore
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Correct answer: (C) ₹1.78 lakh crore

Q4
The 11th Raisina Dialogue was held in New Delhi in March 2026 under which theme?
  1. AKālachakra – People, Peace and Planet
  2. BChaturanga – Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create
  3. CSaṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement
  4. DProvocation, Uncertainty, Turbulence
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Correct answer: (C) Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement

Q5
'Samudra Manthan', approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2026 as a national scheme, primarily aims to promote:
  1. AOffshore hydrocarbon exploration
  2. BDeep-sea mineral mining
  3. CCoastal shipping of cargo
  4. DMarine fisheries exports
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Correct answer: (A) Offshore hydrocarbon exploration

Q6
The 2026 NATO Summit was held in which city?
  1. AThe Hague
  2. BVilnius
  3. CWashington, D.C.
  4. DAnkara
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Correct answer: (D) Ankara

Q7
Which country ranked first in the World Press Freedom Index 2026 released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF)?
  1. AEstonia
  2. BNorway
  3. CSweden
  4. DDenmark
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Correct answer: (B) Norway

Q8
Which country held the ASEAN Chairmanship in 2026 under the theme 'Navigating Our Future, Together'?
  1. ASingapore
  2. BMalaysia
  3. CPhilippines
  4. DLaos
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Correct answer: (C) Philippines

Q9
In May 2026, India upgraded its bilateral relationship to an 'Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership' with which country?
  1. AIndonesia
  2. BPhilippines
  3. CVietnam
  4. DMalaysia
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Correct answer: (C) Vietnam

Q10
On the recommendation of the 16th Finance Commission, the States' vertical share in the divisible pool of Central taxes was retained at:
  1. A42%
  2. B41%
  3. C40%
  4. D32%
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Correct answer: (B) 41%

Q11
According to the July 2026 inflation release, which base year was used for the revised All-India Consumer Price Index (CPI) series?
  1. A2012
  2. B2022–23
  3. C2024
  4. D2020
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Correct answer: (C) 2024

Q12
As per MoSPI's Provisional Estimates released in June 2026, India's real GDP growth rate for FY 2025–26 was:
  1. A7.7%
  2. B8.2%
  3. C6.5%
  4. D7.2%
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Correct answer: (A) 7.7%

Q13
The FIFA World Cup 2026, the first edition to be hosted by three countries, was jointly hosted by:
  1. AUSA, Canada and Brazil
  2. BSpain, Portugal and Morocco
  3. CMexico, Argentina and USA
  4. DUSA, Canada and Mexico
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Correct answer: (D) USA, Canada and Mexico

Q14
The inaugural Khelo India Tribal Games 2026 were hosted by which State?
  1. AJharkhand
  2. BChhattisgarh
  3. CMadhya Pradesh
  4. DOdisha
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Correct answer: (B) Chhattisgarh

Q15
Who became the first Indian weightlifter to win three consecutive Commonwealth Games gold medals at Glasgow 2026?
  1. AAchinta Sheuli
  2. BMirabai Chanu
  3. CJeremy Lalrinnunga
  4. DBindyarani Devi
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Correct answer: (B) Mirabai Chanu

Q16
Under India's updated NDC for 2031–2035, India has committed to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 2035 (from the 2005 level) by:
  1. A47%
  2. B45%
  3. C33%
  4. D50%
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Correct answer: (A) 47%

Q17
Which zone of a Biosphere Reserve receives the highest level of protection, with no human activity allowed?
  1. ATourism zone
  2. BBuffer zone
  3. CTransition zone
  4. DCore zone
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Correct answer: (D) Core zone

Q18
What was the theme of World Health Day 2026 (7 April)?
  1. ATogether for Health. Stand with Science
  2. BMy Health, My Right
  3. CHealth for All
  4. DHealthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures
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Correct answer: (A) Together for Health. Stand with Science

Q19
What was the official theme of National Science Day 2026 (28 February)?
  1. AIntegrated Approach in S&T for Sustainable Future
  2. BIndigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat
  3. CGlobal Science for Global Wellbeing
  4. DWomen in Science: Catalysing Viksit
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Correct answer: (D) Women in Science: Catalysing Viksit

Q20
Which parliamentary committee examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) on the appropriation accounts of the Union Government?
  1. APublic Accounts Committee
  2. BEstimates Committee
  3. CBusiness Advisory Committee
  4. DCommittee on Public Undertakings
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Correct answer: (A) Public Accounts Committee

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability 20 questions

Q21
Find the missing number: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
  1. A129
  2. B125
  3. C127
  4. D131
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Correct answer: (C) 127

Explanation

Each term = previous × 2 + 1 → 63 × 2 + 1 = 127.

Q22
Find the next term: B, E, I, N, T, ?
  1. AB
  2. BZ
  3. CA
  4. DY
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Correct answer: (C) A

Explanation

Gaps +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 → T(20) + 7 = 27 → A (after Z, restart).

Q23
In a certain code, WATER is written as YCVGT. How is FIRE written in that code?
  1. AHKTG
  2. BGJSF
  3. CHKSG
  4. DHJTG
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Correct answer: (A) HKTG

Explanation

Each letter +2: F→H, I→K, R→T, E→G → HKTG.

Q24
In a code language, 'ka pa ni' means 'bring red book', 'ni ti sa' means 'red is good' and 'pa ja' means 'book shop'. What is the code for 'bring'?
  1. Ani
  2. Bpa
  3. Cti
  4. Dka
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Correct answer: (D) ka

Explanation

'red' = ni (common to 1st and 2nd), 'book' = pa (common to 1st and 3rd). So 'bring' = ka.

Q25
Find the odd one out: Mango, Apple, Potato, Banana
  1. AMango
  2. BApple
  3. CBanana
  4. DPotato
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Correct answer: (D) Potato

Explanation

Potato is a vegetable; the others are fruits.

Q26
Find the odd one out: 121, 144, 169, 190
  1. A169
  2. B121
  3. C144
  4. D190
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Correct answer: (D) 190

Explanation

121=11², 144=12², 169=13² are perfect squares; 190 is not.

Q27
Ornithology : Birds :: Entomology : ?
  1. AReptiles
  2. BInsects
  3. CFishes
  4. DPlants
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Correct answer: (B) Insects

Explanation

Ornithology is the study of birds; Entomology is the study of insects.

Q28
12 : 144 :: 15 : ?
  1. A235
  2. B225
  3. C245
  4. D215
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Correct answer: (B) 225

Explanation

n : n² → 15² = 225.

Q29
CAT : DCW :: DOG : ?
  1. AEQI
  2. BEQJ
  3. CEPJ
  4. DFQJ
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Correct answer: (B) EQJ

Explanation

Letters moved +1, +2, +3: D+1=E, O+2=Q, G+3=J → EQJ.

Q30
If '+' means '−', '−' means '×', '×' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then 12 ÷ 6 − 2 × 4 + 3 = ?
  1. A12
  2. B15
  3. C18
  4. D9
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Correct answer: (A) 12

Explanation

12 + 6 × 2 ÷ 4 − 3 = 12 + 3 − 3 = 12.

Q31
If 5 * 3 = 16 and 7 * 2 = 45, then 9 * 4 = ?
  1. A55
  2. B65
  3. C75
  4. D85
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Correct answer: (B) 65

Explanation

a * b = a² − b² → 25−9=16, 49−4=45, so 81 − 16 = 65.

Q32
In a row of boys, Sunil is 10th from the left and Kapil is 15th from the right. When they interchange their positions, Sunil becomes 20th from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
  1. A34
  2. B33
  3. C35
  4. D36
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Correct answer: (A) 34

Explanation

After interchange Sunil is at Kapil's place: 20th from left and 15th from right → total = 20 + 15 − 1 = 34.

Q33
In a race, P finished before Q but after R. S finished before T but after Q. Who finished last?
  1. AQ
  2. BP
  3. CS
  4. DT
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Correct answer: (D) T

Explanation

Order: R, P, Q, S, T → T finished last.

Q34
A is the brother of B. C is the mother of A. D is the father of C. E is the son of D. How is E related to B?
  1. AGrandfather
  2. BBrother
  3. CMaternal uncle
  4. DFather
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Correct answer: (C) Maternal uncle

Explanation

C is mother of A and B; E is C's brother (both children of D) → E is B's maternal uncle.

Q35
Rahul is facing South. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and then 90° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
  1. AEast
  2. BSouth
  3. CNorth
  4. DWest
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Correct answer: (B) South

Explanation

South → (90° clockwise) West → (180°) East → (90° clockwise) South.

Q36
P, Q, R, S and T each have a different number of pens from 1 to 5. P has more pens than Q but fewer than S. T has the fewest pens. R has 4 pens. Who has 3 pens?
  1. AS
  2. BP
  3. CQ
  4. DT
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Correct answer: (B) P

Explanation

T = 1, R = 4. Remaining 2, 3, 5 with Q < P < S → Q = 2, P = 3, S = 5.

Q37
Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing North. B sits at an extreme end. D sits between A and C. E sits immediately to the right of B. A is not adjacent to E. Who sits in the middle of the row?
  1. AC
  2. BD
  3. CA
  4. DE
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Correct answer: (A) C

Explanation

B must be at the left end (E is to its right). Positions: B, E, C, D, A → C is in the middle.

Q38
Statement: The government has increased the tax on cigarettes. Conclusions: I. The price of cigarettes will rise. II. People will stop smoking completely.
  1. AOnly I follows
  2. BNeither follows
  3. CBoth follow
  4. DOnly II follows
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Correct answer: (A) Only I follows

Explanation

Higher tax → higher price (I follows). 'Completely stop' is an extreme conclusion → II does not follow.

Q39
Statements: All roses are flowers. No flower is a tree. Conclusions: I. No rose is a tree. II. Some trees are roses.
  1. ABoth follow
  2. BOnly I follows
  3. CNeither follows
  4. DOnly II follows
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Correct answer: (B) Only I follows

Explanation

All roses are flowers and no flower is a tree → no rose is a tree (I follows). II contradicts this.

Q40
Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among: Teachers, Women, Doctors?
  1. AThree circles overlapping one another
  2. BTwo separate small circles inside one big circle
  3. CThree separate circles, none overlapping
  4. DThree concentric circles, one inside the other
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Correct answer: (A) Three circles overlapping one another

Explanation

(A) Three mutually overlapping circles. A person can be any combination of teacher, woman and doctor → three mutually overlapping circles.

Arithmetical & Numerical Ability 20 questions

Q41
Find the value of: √0.0169 × √1.44 ÷ √0.0144
  1. A0.13
  2. B1.3
  3. C13
  4. D1.03
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Correct answer: (B) 1.3

Q42
If x + 1/x = 5, then the value of x² + 1/x² is:
  1. A25
  2. B27
  3. C21
  4. D23
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Correct answer: (D) 23

Q43
What is the remainder when 2³¹ is divided by 5?
  1. A2
  2. B1
  3. C3
  4. D4
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Correct answer: (C) 3

Q44
Six bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together (including the first time)?
  1. A15
  2. B4
  3. C16
  4. D10
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Correct answer: (C) 16

Q45
A's salary is 25% more than B's salary. By what percent is B's salary less than A's?
  1. A20%
  2. B25%
  3. C15%
  4. D18%
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Correct answer: (A) 20%

Q46
A sells an article to B at a profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays ₹ 1500 for it, what did A pay for it?
  1. A₹ 1050
  2. B₹ 900
  3. C₹ 1200
  4. D₹ 1000
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Correct answer: (D) ₹ 1000

Q47
Two successive discounts of 20% and 10% are equivalent to a single discount of:
  1. A25%
  2. B28%
  3. C27%
  4. D30%
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Correct answer: (B) 28%

Q48
In what ratio must rice costing ₹ 42 per kg be mixed with rice costing ₹ 54 per kg so that the mixture costs ₹ 46 per kg?
  1. A4 : 3
  2. B1 : 2
  3. C2 : 1
  4. D3 : 2
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Correct answer: (C) 2 : 1

Q49
Two trains of lengths 150 m and 200 m are running in opposite directions at 40 km/h and 50 km/h. In how much time will they cross each other?
  1. A16 s
  2. B18 s
  3. C14 s
  4. D12 s
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Correct answer: (C) 14 s

Q50
Walking at 4/5 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 15 minutes late. His usual time to reach the office is:
  1. A45 min
  2. B60 min
  3. C75 min
  4. D50 min
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Correct answer: (B) 60 min

Q51
₹ 7800 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. B's share is:
  1. A₹ 3600
  2. B₹ 1800
  3. C₹ 2400
  4. D₹ 2600
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Correct answer: (C) ₹ 2400

Q52
The present ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 7. After 6 years, the ratio will be 3 : 4. What is A's present age?
  1. A30 years
  2. B36 years
  3. C42 years
  4. D24 years
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Correct answer: (A) 30 years

Q53
The average age of 30 students is 14 years. When the teacher's age is included, the average increases by 1 year. The teacher's age is:
  1. A44 years
  2. B15 years
  3. C46 years
  4. D45 years
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Correct answer: (D) 45 years

Q54
At what rate percent per annum will ₹ 2500 amount to ₹ 3400 in 4 years at simple interest?
  1. A8%
  2. B9%
  3. C7.5%
  4. D10%
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Correct answer: (B) 9%

Q55
A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, and C and A in 20 days. In how many days can A, B and C together finish it?
  1. A8 days
  2. B10 days
  3. C9 days
  4. D12 days
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Correct answer: (B) 10 days

Q56
The area of an equilateral triangle with side 12 cm is:
  1. A36√3 cm²
  2. B48√3 cm²
  3. C24√3 cm²
  4. D72√3 cm²
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Correct answer: (A) 36√3 cm²

Q57
A, B and C invest capitals in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 for periods in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Out of a total profit of ₹ 7600, C's share is:
  1. A₹ 3200
  2. B₹ 3600
  3. C₹ 2400
  4. D₹ 4000
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Correct answer: (D) ₹ 4000

Q58
What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 4:20?
  1. A10°
  2. B20°
  3. C15°
  4. D5°
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Correct answer: (A) 10°

Q59
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Students enrolled in a college (in hundreds): Arts: 12, Science: 18, Commerce: 15, Vocational: 5 Science students are what percent of the total students enrolled?
  1. A32%
  2. B30%
  3. C40%
  4. D36%
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Correct answer: (D) 36%

Q60
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Students enrolled in a college (in hundreds): Arts: 12, Science: 18, Commerce: 15, Vocational: 5 What is the ratio of (Arts + Commerce) students to (Science + Vocational) students?
  1. A27 : 23
  2. B23 : 27
  3. C5 : 4
  4. D9 : 7
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Correct answer: (A) 27 : 23

Hindi Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q61
'उड़ती चिड़िया पहचानना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है —
  1. Aबहुत तेज़ दौड़ना
  2. Bपक्षियों का शिकार करना
  3. Cआसमान में देखना
  4. Dमन की बात जान लेना
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Correct answer: (D) मन की बात जान लेना

Explanation

उड़ती चिड़िया पहचानना = मन की बात जान लेना। इस मुहावरे के 3 रूप TGT में आ चुके हैं।

Q62
'नाच न जाने आँगन टेढ़ा' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है —
  1. Aकाम न आने पर बहाने बनाना
  2. Bनाचने में कुशल होना
  3. Cघर का आँगन टेढ़ा होना
  4. Dदूसरों की मदद करना
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Correct answer: (A) काम न आने पर बहाने बनाना

Explanation

अपनी अयोग्यता का दोष दूसरों पर डालना।

Q63
'जो दूर की बात न सोचे' — वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द
  1. Aअग्रसोची
  2. Bदिग्दर्शक
  3. Cअदूरदर्शी
  4. Dदूरदर्शी
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Correct answer: (C) अदूरदर्शी

Explanation

दूर की न सोचने वाला = अदूरदर्शी।

Q64
'मेघ' का पर्यायवाची है —
  1. Aसहचर
  2. Bनीरज
  3. Cजलज
  4. Dवारिद
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Correct answer: (D) वारिद

Explanation

मेघ = वारिद, नीरद, जलद। नीरज और जलज = कमल।

Q65
'ज्येष्ठ' का विलोम है —
  1. Aगरिष्ठ
  2. Bकनिष्ठ
  3. Cवरिष्ठ
  4. Dश्रेष्ठ
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Correct answer: (B) कनिष्ठ

Explanation

ज्येष्ठ (बड़ा) ↔ कनिष्ठ (छोटा)।

Q66
'उलाहना' का तत्सम रूप है —
  1. Aशिकवा
  2. Bशिकायत
  3. Cअवक्षेपण
  4. Dउपालंभ
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Correct answer: (D) उपालंभ

Explanation

उलाहना (तद्भव) ← उपालंभ (तत्सम)। शिकवा, शिकायत विदेशज हैं।

Q67
'सदाचार' का सही संधि-विच्छेद है —
  1. Aसदा + आचार
  2. Bसदा + चार
  3. Cसत् + आचार
  4. Dसद + आचार
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Correct answer: (C) सत् + आचार

Explanation

सत् + आचार = सदाचार (व्यंजन संधि: त् → द)।

Q68
'नीलकंठ' (शिव के अर्थ में) में समास है —
  1. Aकर्मधारय
  2. Bद्विगु
  3. Cबहुव्रीहि
  4. Dतत्पुरुष
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Correct answer: (C) बहुव्रीहि

Explanation

नीला है कंठ जिसका अर्थात् शिव — तीसरा अर्थ, इसलिए बहुव्रीहि। (केवल 'नीला कंठ' = कर्मधारय)

Q69
'गुरु ने शिष्य ___ ज्ञान दिया।' — रिक्त स्थान में उचित परसर्ग
  1. Aको
  2. Bसे
  3. Cमें
  4. Dने
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Correct answer: (A) को

Explanation

जिसे कुछ दिया जाए — संप्रदान कारक 'को'।

Q70
शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है —
  1. Aआशीर्वाद
  2. Bआर्शीवाद
  3. Cआर्शिवाद
  4. Dआशिर्वाद
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Correct answer: (A) आशीर्वाद

Explanation

शुद्ध रूप: आशीर्वाद (आशीः + वाद)।

Q71
शुद्ध वाक्य चुनिए —
  1. Aमैं आप पर श्रद्धा रखता हूँ।
  2. Bप्रायः करके ऐसा होता है।
  3. Cवह वापस लौट आया।
  4. Dराम सबसे श्रेष्ठतम छात्र है।
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) मैं आप पर श्रद्धा रखता हूँ।

Explanation

बाकी विकल्पों में पुनरुक्ति दोष है (प्रायः करके, वापस लौटना, सबसे श्रेष्ठतम)। TGT 2021 PYQ आधारित।

Q72
वाक्यांशों का सही क्रम चुनिए — (A) भारत एक गणराज्य बना (B) 26 जनवरी 1950 को (C) लागू हुआ और (D) भारत का संविधान
  1. AA C B D
  2. BC A D B
  3. CB D C A
  4. DD B A C
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Correct answer: (C) B D C A

Explanation

26 जनवरी 1950 को भारत का संविधान लागू हुआ और भारत एक गणराज्य बना।

Q73
'कनक कनक ते सौ गुनी मादकता अधिकाय' में अलंकार है —
  1. Aश्लेष
  2. Bयमक
  3. Cअनुप्रास
  4. Dउपमा
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Correct answer: (B) यमक

Explanation

कनक = धतूरा / सोना — एक शब्द दो बार, अर्थ अलग = यमक।

Q74
'माँ से बैठा नहीं जाता।' — वाक्य का वाच्य है —
  1. Aकर्तृवाच्य
  2. Bकर्मकर्तृवाच्य
  3. Cकर्मवाच्य
  4. Dभाववाच्य
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Correct answer: (D) भाववाच्य

Explanation

अकर्मक क्रिया (बैठना) + 'से' + 'जाता' = भाववाच्य। TGT 2021 PYQ।

Q75
'अथक ___ और सतत लगन से कोई भी व्यवसाय चरमसीमा प्राप्त कर सकता है।'
  1. Aजानकारी
  2. Bपरिश्रम
  3. Cज्ञान
  4. Dव्यवहार
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Correct answer: (B) परिश्रम

Explanation

'अथक परिश्रम' स्थिर जोड़ी है। TGT 2023 PYQ।

Q76
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सबसे सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। वे बिना कुछ माँगे हमें ज्ञान, आनंद और दिशा देती हैं। आज के डिजिटल युग में मोबाइल और इंटरनेट ने सूचना को हमारी उँगलियों पर ला दिया है, परंतु सूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है। सूचना तत्काल मिल जाती है, किंतु ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से प्राप्त होता है। दुर्भाग्य से नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि घटती जा रही है। छोटे-छोटे वीडियो देखने की आदत ने उनकी एकाग्रता को भी प्रभावित किया है। पुस्तकालय, जो कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे, आज सूने पड़े रहते हैं। माता-पिता और शिक्षकों को चाहिए कि वे बच्चों में बचपन से ही पढ़ने की आदत डालें। घर में एक छोटा-सा पुस्तक-कोना, सोने से पहले कहानी पढ़ना और पुस्तकें उपहार में देना — ऐसे सरल उपाय पठन-संस्कृति को फिर से जीवित कर सकते हैं। गद्यांश के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक है —
  1. Aपठन-संस्कृति का महत्त्व
  2. Bडिजिटल युग के लाभ
  3. Cसूने पुस्तकालय
  4. Dमोबाइल की आदत
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Correct answer: (A) पठन-संस्कृति का महत्त्व

Explanation

पूरा गद्यांश पढ़ने की आदत और पुस्तकों के महत्त्व पर है।

Q77
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सबसे सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। वे बिना कुछ माँगे हमें ज्ञान, आनंद और दिशा देती हैं। आज के डिजिटल युग में मोबाइल और इंटरनेट ने सूचना को हमारी उँगलियों पर ला दिया है, परंतु सूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है। सूचना तत्काल मिल जाती है, किंतु ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से प्राप्त होता है। दुर्भाग्य से नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि घटती जा रही है। छोटे-छोटे वीडियो देखने की आदत ने उनकी एकाग्रता को भी प्रभावित किया है। पुस्तकालय, जो कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे, आज सूने पड़े रहते हैं। माता-पिता और शिक्षकों को चाहिए कि वे बच्चों में बचपन से ही पढ़ने की आदत डालें। घर में एक छोटा-सा पुस्तक-कोना, सोने से पहले कहानी पढ़ना और पुस्तकें उपहार में देना — ऐसे सरल उपाय पठन-संस्कृति को फिर से जीवित कर सकते हैं। गद्यांश के अनुसार ज्ञान प्राप्त होता है —
  1. Aसूचना एकत्र करने से
  2. Bछोटे वीडियो देखने से
  3. Cइंटरनेट से तत्काल
  4. Dधैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से
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Correct answer: (D) धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से

Explanation

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट लिखा है — ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से मिलता है।

Q78
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सबसे सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। वे बिना कुछ माँगे हमें ज्ञान, आनंद और दिशा देती हैं। आज के डिजिटल युग में मोबाइल और इंटरनेट ने सूचना को हमारी उँगलियों पर ला दिया है, परंतु सूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है। सूचना तत्काल मिल जाती है, किंतु ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से प्राप्त होता है। दुर्भाग्य से नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि घटती जा रही है। छोटे-छोटे वीडियो देखने की आदत ने उनकी एकाग्रता को भी प्रभावित किया है। पुस्तकालय, जो कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे, आज सूने पड़े रहते हैं। माता-पिता और शिक्षकों को चाहिए कि वे बच्चों में बचपन से ही पढ़ने की आदत डालें। घर में एक छोटा-सा पुस्तक-कोना, सोने से पहले कहानी पढ़ना और पुस्तकें उपहार में देना — ऐसे सरल उपाय पठन-संस्कृति को फिर से जीवित कर सकते हैं। 'एकाग्रता' शब्द का अर्थ है —
  1. Aध्यान का एक जगह टिकना
  2. Bअकेलापन
  3. Cएक साथ आना
  4. Dएकता
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Correct answer: (A) ध्यान का एक जगह टिकना

Explanation

एकाग्रता = मन का एक ही विषय पर केंद्रित होना।

Q79
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सबसे सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। वे बिना कुछ माँगे हमें ज्ञान, आनंद और दिशा देती हैं। आज के डिजिटल युग में मोबाइल और इंटरनेट ने सूचना को हमारी उँगलियों पर ला दिया है, परंतु सूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है। सूचना तत्काल मिल जाती है, किंतु ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से प्राप्त होता है। दुर्भाग्य से नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि घटती जा रही है। छोटे-छोटे वीडियो देखने की आदत ने उनकी एकाग्रता को भी प्रभावित किया है। पुस्तकालय, जो कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे, आज सूने पड़े रहते हैं। माता-पिता और शिक्षकों को चाहिए कि वे बच्चों में बचपन से ही पढ़ने की आदत डालें। घर में एक छोटा-सा पुस्तक-कोना, सोने से पहले कहानी पढ़ना और पुस्तकें उपहार में देना — ऐसे सरल उपाय पठन-संस्कृति को फिर से जीवित कर सकते हैं। 'सूने' शब्द का विलोम है —
  1. Aखाली
  2. Bआबाद
  3. Cनिर्जन
  4. Dउजाड़
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Correct answer: (B) आबाद

Explanation

सूना ↔ आबाद। खाली, निर्जन, उजाड़ इसके पर्यायवाची हैं।

Q80
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सबसे सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। वे बिना कुछ माँगे हमें ज्ञान, आनंद और दिशा देती हैं। आज के डिजिटल युग में मोबाइल और इंटरनेट ने सूचना को हमारी उँगलियों पर ला दिया है, परंतु सूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है। सूचना तत्काल मिल जाती है, किंतु ज्ञान धैर्यपूर्वक पढ़ने, सोचने और मनन करने से प्राप्त होता है। दुर्भाग्य से नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि घटती जा रही है। छोटे-छोटे वीडियो देखने की आदत ने उनकी एकाग्रता को भी प्रभावित किया है। पुस्तकालय, जो कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे, आज सूने पड़े रहते हैं। माता-पिता और शिक्षकों को चाहिए कि वे बच्चों में बचपन से ही पढ़ने की आदत डालें। घर में एक छोटा-सा पुस्तक-कोना, सोने से पहले कहानी पढ़ना और पुस्तकें उपहार में देना — ऐसे सरल उपाय पठन-संस्कृति को फिर से जीवित कर सकते हैं। गद्यांश के अनुसार असत्य कथन है —
  1. Aसूचना और ज्ञान में अंतर है।
  2. Bनई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि बढ़ रही है।
  3. Cपुस्तकें उपहार में देना एक उपाय है।
  4. Dपुस्तकालय कभी ज्ञान-साधना के केंद्र थे।
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Correct answer: (B) नई पीढ़ी में पढ़ने की रुचि बढ़ रही है।

Explanation

गद्यांश के अनुसार रुचि 'घटती' जा रही है।

English Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q81
The number of applicants ______ increased this year.
  1. Aare
  2. Bhas
  3. Cwere
  4. Dhave
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Correct answer: (B) has

Explanation

'The number of' singular hai → has. ('A number of' plural hota.)

Q82
He prefers coffee ______ tea.
  1. Ato
  2. Bthan
  3. Cfrom
  4. Dover
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Correct answer: (A) to

Explanation

prefer X to Y. 'than' galat hai.

Q83
Let's go for a walk, ______?
  1. Awon't you
  2. Bshall we
  3. Cwill we
  4. Ddon't we
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Correct answer: (B) shall we

Explanation

'Let's' ke saath tag hamesha 'shall we'.

Q84
If I ______ a bird, I would fly over the mountains.
  1. Awere
  2. Bwas
  3. Cam
  4. Dhad been
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Correct answer: (A) were

Explanation

Imaginary condition mein sabke saath 'were'. PYQs mein kai baar aaya.

Q85
The Ganga is one of ______ holiest rivers in India.
  1. Aa
  2. Bno article
  3. Cthe
  4. Dan
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Correct answer: (C) the

Explanation

Superlative (holiest) se pehle 'the'.

Q86
Select the meaning of the idiom: A bull in a china shop
  1. AA clumsy person who causes damage where care is needed
  2. BA shopkeeper who sells china
  3. CA very strong animal
  4. DA person who loves pottery
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Correct answer: (A) A clumsy person who causes damage where care is needed

Explanation

Anaadi insaan jo nazuk jagah nuksaan kare. PYQs mein 3 baar aaya.

Q87
Select the meaning of the idiom: To blow hot and cold
  1. ATo keep changing one's opinion
  2. BTo quarrel loudly
  3. CTo fall ill often
  4. DTo cook food quickly
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Correct answer: (A) To keep changing one's opinion

Explanation

Thaali ka baingan, kabhi haan kabhi naa. PYQs mein 2 baar.

Q88
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: Within a few weeks, the bare land was covered with green shoots. Q: The villagers decided to plant trees on the empty hillside. R: They collected saplings from the forest department and dug pits before the monsoon. S: Today, the hillside is a small forest that attracts birds and visitors.
  1. ARQPS
  2. BQRPS
  3. CQPRS
  4. DPQSR
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Correct answer: (B) QRPS

Explanation

Faisla (Q) → taiyaari (R) → kuch hafton mein (P) → aaj (S).

Q89
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: But instead of giving up, she practised every evening. Q: Meera wanted to become a good chess player. R: At first, she lost most of her matches against older players. S: By the end of the year, she had won the district championship.
  1. AQPRS
  2. BRQPS
  3. CQRPS
  4. DQRSP
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Correct answer: (C) QRPS

Explanation

'But instead of giving up' ke pehle haar (R) aani chahiye. Q → R → P → S.

Q90
Select the correctly spelt word.
  1. AComittee
  2. BCommitte
  3. CCommitee
  4. DCommittee
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Correct answer: (D) Committee

Explanation

Double m, double t, double e. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q91
An inscription on a tomb or gravestone
  1. AEpithet
  2. BEpilogue
  3. CEpigraph
  4. DEpitaph
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Correct answer: (D) Epitaph

Explanation

Epitaph = kabr pe. Epigraph = building/coin pe (sabse common trap).

Q92
Select the synonym of: CAPRICIOUS
  1. ASteadfast
  2. BStable
  3. CArbitrary
  4. DConstant
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Correct answer: (C) Arbitrary

Explanation

Capricious = manmauji. PYQ (APT 2022) mein answer Arbitrary.

Q93
Select the antonym of: ZENITH
  1. AAcme
  2. BSummit
  3. CNadir
  4. DPeak
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Correct answer: (C) Nadir

Explanation

Zenith = shikhar, Nadir = sabse neecha bindu. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q94
Improve the bracketed part: Each of the students [have submitted] the assignment.
  1. Aare submitting
  2. Bhave submit
  3. Chas submitted
  4. DNo improvement
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Correct answer: (C) has submitted

Explanation

'Each of + plural noun' → singular verb: has.

Q95
Find the part with an error: Bread and butter (A) / is my favourite (B) / breakfast. (C) / No error (D)
  1. Ais my favourite (B)
  2. Bbreakfast. (C)
  3. CBread and butter (A)
  4. DNo error
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Correct answer: (D) No error

Explanation

Bread and butter ek dish hai, isliye singular 'is' sahi hai. Koi galti nahi.

Q96
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Return of Millets For centuries, millets such as ragi, jowar and bajra formed the backbone of the Indian diet. They grow well in dry regions, need far less water than rice or wheat and can survive high temperatures. Yet, after the Green Revolution, farmers increasingly shifted to rice and wheat, which were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers. Millets slowly disappeared from the plates of urban families, who began to see them as food for the poor. In recent years, however, there has been a remarkable revival. Nutritionists point out that millets are rich in fibre, iron and calcium, and release sugar slowly into the blood, making them ideal for people with lifestyle diseases. The United Nations declared 2023 the International Year of Millets at India's suggestion, giving the grains global attention. Still, experts caution that enthusiasm alone is not enough. Unless farmers receive fair prices and consumers find millet products convenient to cook, the revival may remain a passing trend rather than a lasting change. Why did farmers move away from millets after the Green Revolution?
  1. AMillets could not survive high temperatures
  2. BMillets needed much more water
  3. CUrban families demanded more millets
  4. DRice and wheat had assured purchase and subsidised fertilisers
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Correct answer: (D) Rice and wheat had assured purchase and subsidised fertilisers

Explanation

Passage: rice and wheat 'were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers'.

Q97
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Return of Millets For centuries, millets such as ragi, jowar and bajra formed the backbone of the Indian diet. They grow well in dry regions, need far less water than rice or wheat and can survive high temperatures. Yet, after the Green Revolution, farmers increasingly shifted to rice and wheat, which were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers. Millets slowly disappeared from the plates of urban families, who began to see them as food for the poor. In recent years, however, there has been a remarkable revival. Nutritionists point out that millets are rich in fibre, iron and calcium, and release sugar slowly into the blood, making them ideal for people with lifestyle diseases. The United Nations declared 2023 the International Year of Millets at India's suggestion, giving the grains global attention. Still, experts caution that enthusiasm alone is not enough. Unless farmers receive fair prices and consumers find millet products convenient to cook, the revival may remain a passing trend rather than a lasting change. Which health benefit of millets is mentioned in the passage?
  1. AThey release sugar slowly into the blood
  2. BThey cure all lifestyle diseases
  3. CThey are low in calcium
  4. DThey are rich in protein for athletes
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Correct answer: (A) They release sugar slowly into the blood

Explanation

Passage: 'release sugar slowly into the blood'. 'Cure all' passage mein nahi likha.

Q98
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Return of Millets For centuries, millets such as ragi, jowar and bajra formed the backbone of the Indian diet. They grow well in dry regions, need far less water than rice or wheat and can survive high temperatures. Yet, after the Green Revolution, farmers increasingly shifted to rice and wheat, which were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers. Millets slowly disappeared from the plates of urban families, who began to see them as food for the poor. In recent years, however, there has been a remarkable revival. Nutritionists point out that millets are rich in fibre, iron and calcium, and release sugar slowly into the blood, making them ideal for people with lifestyle diseases. The United Nations declared 2023 the International Year of Millets at India's suggestion, giving the grains global attention. Still, experts caution that enthusiasm alone is not enough. Unless farmers receive fair prices and consumers find millet products convenient to cook, the revival may remain a passing trend rather than a lasting change. The word 'revival' in the passage means:
  1. Arenewal
  2. Bdecline
  3. Crejection
  4. Ddestruction
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) renewal

Explanation

Revival = phir se zinda hona, renewal.

Q99
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Return of Millets For centuries, millets such as ragi, jowar and bajra formed the backbone of the Indian diet. They grow well in dry regions, need far less water than rice or wheat and can survive high temperatures. Yet, after the Green Revolution, farmers increasingly shifted to rice and wheat, which were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers. Millets slowly disappeared from the plates of urban families, who began to see them as food for the poor. In recent years, however, there has been a remarkable revival. Nutritionists point out that millets are rich in fibre, iron and calcium, and release sugar slowly into the blood, making them ideal for people with lifestyle diseases. The United Nations declared 2023 the International Year of Millets at India's suggestion, giving the grains global attention. Still, experts caution that enthusiasm alone is not enough. Unless farmers receive fair prices and consumers find millet products convenient to cook, the revival may remain a passing trend rather than a lasting change. Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'lasting'.
  1. Adurable
  2. Bpermanent
  3. Cenduring
  4. Dtemporary
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) temporary

Explanation

Lasting = tikne wala. Ulta = temporary.

Q100
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Return of Millets For centuries, millets such as ragi, jowar and bajra formed the backbone of the Indian diet. They grow well in dry regions, need far less water than rice or wheat and can survive high temperatures. Yet, after the Green Revolution, farmers increasingly shifted to rice and wheat, which were supported by assured government purchase and subsidised fertilisers. Millets slowly disappeared from the plates of urban families, who began to see them as food for the poor. In recent years, however, there has been a remarkable revival. Nutritionists point out that millets are rich in fibre, iron and calcium, and release sugar slowly into the blood, making them ideal for people with lifestyle diseases. The United Nations declared 2023 the International Year of Millets at India's suggestion, giving the grains global attention. Still, experts caution that enthusiasm alone is not enough. Unless farmers receive fair prices and consumers find millet products convenient to cook, the revival may remain a passing trend rather than a lasting change. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
  1. AThe Success of the Green Revolution
  2. BMillets: From Forgotten Grain to Future Food
  3. CThe United Nations and World Agriculture
  4. DWhy Rice Is Better Than Millets
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Millets: From Forgotten Grain to Future Food

Explanation

Passage millets ke bhoolne aur phir wapas aane ki baat karta hai.

Computer Science 90 questions

Q101
The BCD representation of decimal 92 is:
  1. A1001 0010
  2. B1011 1100
  3. C1001 1000
  4. D0101 1100
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 1001 0010

Explanation

Each digit separately: 9 = 1001, 2 = 0010.

Q102
The Excess-3 code of decimal digit 7 is:
  1. A0111
  2. B1010
  3. C1011
  4. D1001
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 1010

Explanation

7 + 3 = 10 = 1010.

Q103
A direct-mapped cache has 128 lines and a block size of 16 bytes. With 16-bit addresses, how many bits form the tag?
  1. A9
  2. B7
  3. C4
  4. D5
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 5

Explanation

Offset = 4 bits, line = 7 bits, tag = 16 − 7 − 4 = 5.

Q104
What is the last address (in hexadecimal) of a 2 KB byte-addressable memory starting at 000?
  1. AFFF
  2. B800
  3. C3FF
  4. D7FF
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 7FF

Explanation

2 KB = 2048 locations → last = 2047 = 7FF.

Q105
In IEEE 754 single precision, how many bits are used for the exponent?
  1. A7
  2. B23
  3. C8
  4. D11
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 8

Explanation

1 sign + 8 exponent + 23 mantissa.

Q106
In which DMA mode does the controller transfer one word and then return the bus to the CPU?
  1. ABurst mode
  2. BPolling
  3. CCycle stealing
  4. DBlock mode
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Cycle stealing

Explanation

Cycle stealing takes one bus cycle at a time.

Q107
Harvard architecture is characterised by:
  1. ANo cache memory
  2. BOnly one bus for everything
  3. CSeparate memories for instructions and data
  4. DA single shared memory
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Separate memories for instructions and data

Explanation

Von Neumann uses one memory; Harvard keeps them separate.

Q108
Which register holds the instruction currently being executed?
  1. AInstruction Register
  2. BMAR
  3. CStack Pointer
  4. DProgram Counter
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Instruction Register

Explanation

IR holds the current instruction.

Q109
The largest unsigned number that can be stored in 8 bits is:
  1. A127
  2. B128
  3. C256
  4. D255
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 255

Explanation

2^8 − 1 = 255.

Q110
(A + B)' is equal to:
  1. AA'·B'
  2. BA' + B'
  3. CA·B
  4. DA + B
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) A'·B'

Explanation

De Morgan's theorem.

Q111
In a half adder, the Sum and Carry outputs are:
  1. AA·B and A ⊕ B
  2. BA ⊙ B and A + B
  3. CA ⊕ B and A·B
  4. DA + B and A·B
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) A ⊕ B and A·B

Explanation

Sum = XOR, Carry = AND.

Q112
How many 2-to-4 decoders (with enable) are needed to build a 4-to-16 decoder?
  1. A4
  2. B2
  3. C8
  4. D5
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 5

Explanation

4 decoders for outputs + 1 to drive their enables = 5.

Q113
In an SR latch built with NOR gates, which input combination is invalid?
  1. AS = 0, R = 0
  2. BS = 0, R = 1
  3. CS = 1, R = 0
  4. DS = 1, R = 1
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) S = 1, R = 1

Explanation

S = R = 1 forces both outputs to 0, which is invalid.

Q114
A 4-bit Johnson (twisted-ring) counter has how many distinct states?
  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C16
  4. D15
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 8

Explanation

Johnson counter with n flip-flops has 2n states.

Q115
AB + A'C + BC simplifies to:
  1. AA'C + BC
  2. BAB + BC
  3. CAB + A'C
  4. DA + C
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) AB + A'C

Explanation

Consensus theorem: the BC term is redundant.

Q116
Round Robin with quantum 2: P1 = 5, P2 = 3, P3 = 1 (all arrive at 0, in this order). At what time does P1 complete?
  1. A5
  2. B9
  3. C8
  4. D7
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 9

Explanation

P1(0–2) P2(2–4) P3(4–5) P1(5–7) P2(7–8) P1(8–9).

Q117
A counting semaphore S is initialised to 3. If 4 wait() and 2 signal() operations are performed, the final value of S is:
  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C−1
  4. D5
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 1

Explanation

3 − 4 + 2 = 1.

Q118
Using LRU with 3 frames (initially empty), how many page faults occur for 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4?
  1. A4
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D7
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 6

Explanation

Faults at 7, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4; the two 0s later are hits.

Q119
Disk head at cylinder 50; requests: 82, 170, 43, 140, 24, 16, 190. Total head movement under SSTF is:
  1. A190
  2. B332
  3. C642
  4. D208
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 208

Explanation

50→43→24→16→82→140→170→190 = 7+19+8+66+58+30+20 = 208.

Q120
A process that has finished execution but still has an entry in the process table is a:
  1. ADaemon process
  2. BZombie process
  3. CChild process
  4. DOrphan process
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Zombie process

Explanation

Its parent has not yet collected its exit status.

Q121
Paging suffers from which type of fragmentation?
  1. AInternal fragmentation
  2. BExternal fragmentation
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Internal fragmentation

Explanation

The last page of a process may be partly empty.

Q122
4 processes each need 3 instances of a resource. Minimum instances needed so that deadlock never occurs:
  1. A10
  2. B8
  3. C12
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 9

Explanation

n(k − 1) + 1 = 4 × 2 + 1 = 9.

Q123
Which process state transition is NOT valid?
  1. ARunning → Waiting
  2. BWaiting → Ready
  3. CWaiting → Running
  4. DReady → Running
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Waiting → Running

Explanation

A waiting process must first go to Ready.

Q124
Which representation of an algorithm is closest to actual program code?
  1. APseudocode
  2. BDecision table
  3. CData flow diagram
  4. DFlowchart
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Pseudocode

Explanation

Pseudocode resembles program statements.

Q125
Which translator executes a program line by line?
  1. ALinker
  2. BLoader
  3. CInterpreter
  4. DCompiler
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Interpreter

Explanation

An interpreter translates and executes one statement at a time.

Q126
A missing semicolon in a C program is detected at:
  1. ARun time
  2. BIt is never detected
  3. CCompile time (syntax error)
  4. DLink time
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Compile time (syntax error)

Explanation

Grammar violations are syntax errors caught by the compiler.

Q127
What is the output? int a = 10; if (a = 0) printf("Zero"); else printf("NonZero");
  1. AZero
  2. BZeroNonZero
  3. CCompile error
  4. DNonZero
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) NonZero

Explanation

a = 0 is an assignment whose value is 0 (false).

Q128
What is the output? int i = 0; while (i < 5) { i++; if (i == 3) continue; printf("%d", i); }
  1. A1245
  2. B124
  3. C12345
  4. D012
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 1245

Explanation

i becomes 1..5; 3 is skipped by continue.

Q129
What is the output? char *s = "HELLO"; printf("%c", *(s + 1));
  1. AL
  2. BE
  3. CH
  4. DGarbage
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) E

Explanation

*(s + 1) is s[1] = 'E'.

Q130
What is the output? int x = 5; int *p = &x; *p = *p + 5; printf("%d", x);
  1. AAddress of x
  2. B15
  3. C5
  4. D10
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 10

Explanation

Changing *p changes x.

Q131
What is the output? #define SQ(x) x*x printf("%d", SQ(3+1));
  1. A10
  2. B16
  3. C9
  4. D7
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 7

Explanation

Expands to 3+1*3+1 = 7 (no brackets in the macro).

Q132
What is the output? int a[2][3] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}; printf("%d", a[1][1]);
  1. A5
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. D6
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 5

Explanation

Row 1 is {4, 5, 6}; column 1 gives 5.

Q133
What is the output? int x = 7; printf("%d", x >> 1);
  1. A14
  2. B1
  3. C3
  4. D6
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 3

Explanation

Right shift by 1 divides by 2 (integer): 3.

Q134
In C++, run-time polymorphism is achieved using:
  1. AOperator overloading
  2. BFunction overloading
  3. CTemplates
  4. DVirtual functions
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Virtual functions

Explanation

Virtual functions are bound at run time.

Q135
In C++, a friend function of a class can:
  1. ABe inherited by derived classes
  2. BOnly access public members
  3. CNot be a non-member function
  4. DAccess its private and protected members
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Access its private and protected members

Explanation

Friendship grants access to private/protected members.

Q136
Which statement about destructors in C++ is TRUE?
  1. ACalled only when the program starts
  2. BPrefixed with ~, no arguments and no return type
  3. CCan be overloaded
  4. DMust return void explicitly
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Prefixed with ~, no arguments and no return type

Explanation

A class has exactly one destructor: ~ClassName().

Q137
In Java, a class declared final:
  1. AMust be abstract
  2. BCannot be inherited
  3. CCannot be instantiated
  4. DCannot have methods
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Cannot be inherited

Explanation

final class → no subclasses; final method → no override; final variable → constant.

Q138
In Java, the default value of a boolean instance variable is:
  1. Anull
  2. Btrue
  3. Cfalse
  4. D0
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) false

Explanation

Instance variables get defaults: int 0, boolean false, objects null.

Q139
Abstract methods declared in a Java interface are implicitly:
  1. Apublic and abstract
  2. Bprotected
  3. Cfinal
  4. Dprivate and static
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) public and abstract

Explanation

Interface methods are public abstract by default.

Q140
Which of the following is NOT a primitive data type in Java?
  1. Aboolean
  2. Bint
  3. Cchar
  4. DString
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) String

Explanation

String is a class.

Q141
The Java compiler (javac) converts source code into:
  1. AAssembly code
  2. BBytecode (.class file)
  3. CHTML
  4. DMachine code (.exe)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Bytecode (.class file)

Explanation

The JVM then executes the bytecode.

Q142
What is the output of print([1, 2, 3, 4, 5][1:4])?
  1. A[1, 2, 3, 4]
  2. B[1, 2, 3]
  3. C[2, 3, 4, 5]
  4. D[2, 3, 4]
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) [2, 3, 4]

Explanation

Slicing includes the start index and excludes the end index.

Q143
What is the output of print(2 ** 3 ** 2)?
  1. A64
  2. B512
  3. C36
  4. D12
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 512

Explanation

** is right-associative: 3 ** 2 = 9, then 2 ** 9 = 512.

Q144
Which pandas function reads a CSV file into a DataFrame?
  1. Apd.csv()
  2. Bpd.load()
  3. Cpd.read_csv()
  4. Dpd.open_csv()
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) pd.read_csv()

Explanation

read_csv() returns a DataFrame.

Q145
The prefix form of (A + B) * C is:
  1. A*+ABC
  2. B+*ABC
  3. C*AB+C
  4. DAB+C*
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) *+ABC

Explanation

Operator before operands: * (+AB) C.

Q146
Which collision resolution technique stores colliding keys in linked lists?
  1. ASeparate chaining
  2. BDouble hashing
  3. CQuadratic probing
  4. DLinear probing
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Separate chaining

Explanation

Chaining keeps a list at each slot.

Q147
The worst-case time complexity of Quick Sort is:
  1. AO(n)
  2. BO(n^2)
  3. CO(n log n)
  4. DO(log n)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) O(n^2)

Explanation

Occurs when pivots are always the smallest or largest element.

Q148
In a circular queue of size n, the queue is full when:
  1. A(rear + 1) % n == front
  2. Brear == front
  3. Cfront == 0
  4. Drear == n
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) (rear + 1) % n == front

Explanation

One slot is kept empty to distinguish full from empty.

Q149
How many edges does a complete undirected graph with 6 vertices have?
  1. A30
  2. B6
  3. C15
  4. D12
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 15

Explanation

n(n − 1)/2 = 6 × 5 / 2 = 15.

Q150
Inserting a node at the beginning of a singly linked list takes:
  1. AO(1)
  2. BO(n^2)
  3. CO(n)
  4. DO(log n)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) O(1)

Explanation

Only the head pointer changes.

Q151
Which data structure is used to manage function calls and recursion?
  1. AQueue
  2. BStack
  3. CGraph
  4. DHeap
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Stack

Explanation

The call stack stores activation records.

Q152
A tree has root A with children B (left) and C (right); B has children D and E. What is the postorder traversal?
  1. AA B D E C
  2. BD B E A C
  3. CD E B C A
  4. DA C B E D
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) D E B C A

Explanation

Left, right, root.

Q153
A primary key column:
  1. ACan repeat values
  2. BMust be a foreign key
  3. CCan contain NULL values
  4. DMust be unique and NOT NULL
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Must be unique and NOT NULL

Explanation

Entity integrity rule.

Q154
3NF removes which type of dependency?
  1. AJoin dependency
  2. BTransitive dependency
  3. CPartial dependency
  4. DMultivalued dependency
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Transitive dependency

Explanation

2NF – partial; 3NF – transitive; 4NF – multivalued.

Q155
Referential integrity is enforced using a:
  1. APrimary key only
  2. BIndex
  3. CView
  4. DForeign key
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Foreign key

Explanation

A foreign key must match a primary key value or be NULL.

Q156
The TRUNCATE command:
  1. ACan always be rolled back
  2. BRemoves the table structure
  3. CRemoves selected rows with WHERE
  4. DRemoves all rows but keeps the table structure
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Removes all rows but keeps the table structure

Explanation

TRUNCATE is a DDL command that empties the table.

Q157
GRANT and REVOKE belong to which category of SQL commands?
  1. ADDL
  2. BDML
  3. CDCL
  4. DTCL
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) DCL

Explanation

Data Control Language manages permissions.

Q158
Which keyword removes duplicate rows from a SELECT result?
  1. ADISTINCT
  2. BALL
  3. CUNIQUE
  4. DGROUP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) DISTINCT

Explanation

SELECT DISTINCT column ...

Q159
A relation is in BCNF if, for every non-trivial FD X → Y:
  1. AX is a super key
  2. BX is a foreign key
  3. CY is a candidate key
  4. DY is a prime attribute
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) X is a super key

Explanation

Every determinant must be a (super/candidate) key.

Q160
The number of attributes (columns) in a relation is called its:
  1. ADegree
  2. BDomain
  3. CCardinality
  4. DArity of tuples
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Degree

Explanation

Degree = columns; cardinality = rows.

Q161
TCP operates at which layer of the OSI model?
  1. AData link
  2. BSession
  3. CTransport
  4. DNetwork
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Transport

Explanation

TCP and UDP are transport-layer protocols.

Q162
A MAC address is how many bits long?
  1. A128
  2. B32
  3. C64
  4. D48
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 48

Explanation

6 bytes = 48 bits.

Q163
SMTP uses which default port?
  1. A110
  2. B143
  3. C21
  4. D25
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 25

Explanation

SMTP 25, POP3 110, IMAP 143, FTP 21.

Q164
192.168.10.5 is a:
  1. ALoopback address
  2. BPublic Class B address
  3. CPrivate Class C address
  4. DClass D multicast address
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Private Class C address

Explanation

192.168.0.0/16 is a private range.

Q165
The ping command uses which protocol?
  1. AARP
  2. BICMP
  3. CUDP
  4. DTCP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) ICMP

Explanation

Ping sends ICMP echo request/reply.

Q166
How many usable host addresses are there in a /24 network?
  1. A255
  2. B126
  3. C256
  4. D254
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 254

Explanation

256 − 2 = 254.

Q167
A hub operates at which OSI layer?
  1. ANetwork
  2. BData link
  3. CPhysical
  4. DTransport
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Physical

Explanation

A hub simply repeats signals to all ports.

Q168
A digital signature is created using the:
  1. ASender's public key
  2. BReceiver's private key
  3. CSender's private key
  4. DReceiver's public key
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Sender's private key

Explanation

The receiver verifies it with the sender's public key.

Q169
HTTP is called a stateless protocol because:
  1. AIt is encrypted
  2. BThe server keeps no information about previous requests
  3. CIt cannot transfer files
  4. DIt uses UDP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) The server keeps no information about previous requests

Explanation

Each request is independent; cookies/sessions add state.

Q170
Bluetooth is an example of a:
  1. ALAN
  2. BWAN
  3. CPAN
  4. DMAN
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) PAN

Explanation

Personal Area Network, around 10 m.

Q171
A Class C network uses subnet mask 255.255.255.224. How many usable hosts per subnet?
  1. A32
  2. B62
  3. C30
  4. D14
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 30

Explanation

/27 → 2^5 − 2 = 30.

Q172
Which HTML tag creates a numbered list?
  1. A<ol>
  2. B<li>
  3. C<dl>
  4. D<ul>
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) <ol>

Explanation

ol = ordered list; ul = unordered.

Q173
In CSS, which symbol selects an element by its id?
  1. A*
  2. B.
  3. C#
  4. D@
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) #

Explanation

#id selects an id; .class selects a class.

Q174
What is the output of console.log(5 === "5") in JavaScript?
  1. Atrue
  2. Bundefined
  3. CError
  4. Dfalse
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) false

Explanation

=== checks value and type; == would give true.

Q175
DOM stands for:
  1. ADocument Object Model
  2. BData Object Management
  3. CDigital Object Model
  4. DDocument Oriented Markup
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Document Object Model

Explanation

DOM represents a page as a tree of objects.

Q176
The structure of an XML document can be defined using:
  1. AJavaScript
  2. BHTTP
  3. CCSS
  4. DDTD or XML Schema
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) DTD or XML Schema

Explanation

DTD/XSD define valid elements and attributes.

Q177
Classic ASP code is executed on the:
  1. AWeb server
  2. BDNS server
  3. CClient's operating system
  4. DBrowser
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Web server

Explanation

ASP is a server-side technology.

Q178
Which HTML5 element embeds video without plug-ins?
  1. A<movie>
  2. B<video>
  3. C<media>
  4. D<embed-video>
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) <video>

Explanation

HTML5 introduced video and audio elements.

Q179
Which SDLC model is least suitable when requirements change frequently?
  1. ASpiral
  2. BWaterfall
  3. CPrototyping
  4. DAgile
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Waterfall

Explanation

Waterfall is linear and freezes requirements early.

Q180
Statement and branch coverage are measures used in:
  1. ABlack-box testing
  2. BAcceptance testing
  3. CWhite-box testing
  4. DBeta testing
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) White-box testing

Explanation

They need knowledge of the code.

Q181
Alpha testing is performed:
  1. AAt the customer's site by end users
  2. BAt the developer's site
  3. COnly after release
  4. DBy automated tools only
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Correct answer: (B) At the developer's site

Explanation

Beta testing happens at the customer's site.

Q182
Function Point Analysis measures software:
  1. AMemory use
  2. BSize based on functionality
  3. CReliability
  4. DExecution speed
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Correct answer: (B) Size based on functionality

Explanation

FPA counts inputs, outputs, inquiries, files and interfaces.

Q183
A control-flow graph has 9 edges and 7 nodes. Its cyclomatic complexity is:
  1. A4
  2. B16
  3. C2
  4. D3
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Correct answer: (A) 4

Explanation

V(G) = E − N + 2 = 9 − 7 + 2 = 4.

Q184
Re-testing software after modification to ensure existing features still work is called:
  1. AUnit testing
  2. BRegression testing
  3. CSmoke testing
  4. DStress testing
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Correct answer: (B) Regression testing

Explanation

Regression testing catches side-effects of changes.

Q185
A Gantt chart is mainly used for:
  1. ACost estimation
  2. BProject scheduling
  3. CCode review
  4. DData modelling
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Correct answer: (B) Project scheduling

Explanation

It shows tasks against a time line.

Q186
The Cohen–Sutherland algorithm is used for:
  1. ACircle drawing
  2. BPolygon filling
  3. CLine clipping
  4. DHidden surface removal
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Correct answer: (C) Line clipping

Explanation

It uses 4-bit region codes.

Q187
Which type of graphics can be scaled without loss of quality?
  1. AVector graphics
  2. BBitmap graphics
  3. CJPEG images
  4. DRaster graphics
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Correct answer: (A) Vector graphics

Explanation

Vectors store shapes mathematically.

Q188
The CMYK colour model is mainly used for:
  1. AComputer monitors
  2. BPrinting
  3. CTelevision screens
  4. DProjectors
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Correct answer: (B) Printing

Explanation

CMYK is subtractive (inks); RGB is additive (screens).

Q189
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?
  1. ABroad network access
  2. BOn-demand self-service
  3. CResource pooling
  4. DFixed capacity that cannot scale
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Correct answer: (D) Fixed capacity that cannot scale

Explanation

Cloud computing offers rapid elasticity.

Q190
Obtaining sensitive information through fake emails or websites that appear genuine is called:
  1. ASpoofing a printer
  2. BSpamming
  3. CHacking
  4. DPhishing
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Correct answer: (D) Phishing

Explanation

Phishing tricks users into revealing passwords or bank details.

Teaching Methodology 10 questions

Q191
Lawrence Kohlberg is known for his theory of:
  1. ACognitive development
  2. BMultiple intelligences
  3. CPsychosocial development
  4. DMoral development
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Correct answer: (D) Moral development

Explanation

Pre-conventional, conventional and post-conventional levels.

Q192
According to Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience, the most concrete experience is:
  1. AVerbal symbols
  2. BDirect purposeful experience
  3. CRecordings
  4. DVisual symbols
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Correct answer: (B) Direct purposeful experience

Explanation

Verbal symbols are the most abstract.

Q193
Diagnostic assessment is mainly used to:
  1. ASelect toppers
  2. BIdentify learning difficulties and their causes
  3. CAward final grades
  4. DRank students
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Correct answer: (B) Identify learning difficulties and their causes

Explanation

It is followed by remedial teaching.

Q194
The idea of a 'spiral curriculum' was given by:
  1. AKurt Lewin
  2. BJerome Bruner
  3. CJohn Dewey
  4. DB.F. Skinner
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Correct answer: (B) Jerome Bruner

Explanation

Topics are revisited at increasing levels of complexity.

Q195
The concept of 'advance organisers' was given by:
  1. AJean Piaget
  2. BRobert Gagne
  3. CDavid Ausubel
  4. DAlbert Bandura
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Correct answer: (C) David Ausubel

Explanation

Meaningful reception learning links new ideas to existing ones.

Q196
The Project Method of teaching was developed by:
  1. AW.H. Kilpatrick
  2. BFroebel
  3. CMaria Montessori
  4. DH.E. Armstrong
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Correct answer: (A) W.H. Kilpatrick

Explanation

Based on Dewey's 'learning by doing'.

Q197
Thorndike's Law of Effect states that:
  1. AResponses followed by satisfaction are strengthened
  2. BPractice makes perfect
  3. CReadiness determines learning
  4. DLearning is innate
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Correct answer: (A) Responses followed by satisfaction are strengthened

Explanation

Satisfying consequences strengthen behaviour.

Q198
A guiding principle of NCF 2005 is:
  1. ARote learning of textbooks
  2. BTeaching only in English
  3. CExamination-centred teaching
  4. DConnecting knowledge to life outside the school
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Correct answer: (D) Connecting knowledge to life outside the school

Explanation

It also stresses moving away from rote methods.

Q199
The RTE Act 2009 provides free and compulsory education to children aged:
  1. A6 to 18 years
  2. B3 to 10 years
  3. C6 to 14 years
  4. D5 to 15 years
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Correct answer: (C) 6 to 14 years

Explanation

Article 21A and the RTE Act 2009.

Q200
Teaching computing concepts (like sorting or binary) without computers, using games and physical activities, is called:
  1. ABlended learning
  2. BE-learning
  3. CUnplugged activities
  4. DFlipped classroom
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Correct answer: (C) Unplugged activities

Explanation

CS Unplugged makes abstract ideas concrete.

Practise it as a real test

Reading answers is not the same as solving under time pressure. Attempt DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 2 online with the real 120-minute timer and marking scheme to get your score and all-India rank, or browse the other tests in the DSSSB TGT Computer Science Mock Test & Previous Year Papers.