Practice Set · Questions with answers

DSSSB TGT Computer Science Practice Set 3

All 100 questions of DSSSB TGT Computer Science Practice Set 3 with the correct answer and a solution. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the paper as a timed online test.

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Q1
On which of the following storage media, storage of information is organized as a single continuous spiral groove ?
  1. ACD-ROM
  2. BRAM
  3. CHard disk
  4. DFloppy disk
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Correct answer: (A) CD-ROM

Explanation

A CD-ROM stores data along one continuous spiral track running from the centre outward. Hard disks and floppy disks use concentric circular tracks, and RAM is semiconductor memory with no tracks.

Q2
The kernal keeps track of the state of each executing program by using a data structure called ______.
  1. AProcess control block
  2. BUser control block
  3. CFile control block
  4. DMemory control block
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Correct answer: (A) Process control block

Explanation

The OS keeps a Process Control Block (PCB) for each process. It holds the process state, program counter, registers, scheduling information and memory details.

Q3
The technology that stores only the essential instructions on a microprocessors chip and thus enhances its speed is referred to as :
  1. AMIMD
  2. BCISC
  3. CRISC
  4. DSIMD
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Correct answer: (C) RISC

Explanation

RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) keeps only a small set of simple, essential instructions on the chip, so each instruction runs fast, often in one clock cycle. CISC uses many complex instructions.

Q4
Ten signals, each requiring 3000Hz, are multiplexed onto a single channel using FDM. How much minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz wide.
  1. A33,700
  2. B30,000
  3. C32,700
  4. D33,000
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Correct answer: (C) 32,700

Explanation

Bandwidth = 10 × 3000 Hz + 9 guard bands × 300 Hz = 30,000 + 2,700 = 32,700 Hz. Ten channels only need 9 guard bands between them.

Q5
Which of the following is the default scripting language in Active Server Pages (ASP)?
  1. AJavaScript
  2. BPHP
  3. CHTML
  4. DVBScript
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Correct answer: (D) VBScript

Explanation

Classic ASP uses VBScript as its default scripting language. JScript can be chosen with a page directive.

Q6
What is the bit rate for transmitting uncompressed 800×600 pixel color frame with 8 bits/pixel at 40 frames/second?
  1. A1536 Mbps
  2. B2.4 Mbps
  3. C15.36 Mbps
  4. D153.6 Mbps
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Correct answer: (D) 153.6 Mbps

Explanation

Bits per frame = 800 × 600 × 8 = 3,840,000. At 40 frames/s this is 3,840,000 × 40 = 153,600,000 bits/s = 153.6 Mbps.

Q7
Which of the following algorithms use recursion for sorting an array of integers?
  1. ABubble sort and Insertion sort
  2. BBubble sort and Quick sort
  3. CBubble sort and merge sort
  4. DQuick sort and merge sort
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Correct answer: (D) Quick sort and merge sort

Explanation

Quick sort and merge sort are divide-and-conquer algorithms and are normally written recursively. Bubble sort and insertion sort are simple iterative algorithms.

Q8
In which of the topology, each device has a dedicated point-to-point link to a central controller?
  1. AMesh
  2. BBus
  3. CRing
  4. DStar
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Correct answer: (D) Star

Explanation

In a star topology every device has its own point-to-point link to a central hub or controller. In a mesh, every device links directly to every other device.

Q9
In single-precision, double precision and extended-precision representation of floating point numbers, as defined by ANSI/IEEE standard 754-1985, the no. of bits used are ______ respectively.
  1. A32, 64 and 80
  2. B32, 64 and 128
  3. C16, 32 and 64
  4. D16, 32 and 80
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Correct answer: (A) 32, 64 and 80

Explanation

IEEE 754 uses 32 bits for single precision, 64 bits for double precision and 80 bits for the x87 extended-precision format.

Q10
Additional information sent when an exception is thrown may be placed in ______.
  1. AThe throw keyword
  2. BThe function that caused the error
  3. CThe catch block
  4. DAn object of the exception class
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Correct answer: (D) An object of the exception class

Explanation

Corrected: the book's key says (c). The additional information is carried by the exception object that is thrown.

Q11
Consider the following three binary trees, each with 7 nodes. Tree A: root has a left child that is a leaf and a right child X; X has a left child Y and a right child that is a leaf; Y has two leaf children. Tree B: root has a left child L and a right child R; L has only a left child (a leaf); R has only a left child Z; Z has two leaf children. Tree C: root has two children, and each of them has two leaf children (a full tree of height 2). Then A is ______ binary tree, B is ______ binary tree and C is ______ binary tree.
  1. AStrictly, strictly, complete
  2. BComplete, not strictly, strictly
  3. CStrictly, not strictly, strictly
  4. DStrictly, not strictly, complete
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Correct answer: (D) Strictly, not strictly, complete

Explanation

Tree A is strictly binary because every node has 0 or 2 children. Tree B is not, because L and R each have only one child. Tree C is a full tree of height 2 with every level filled, so it is complete.

Q12
An interface that provides I/O transfer of data directly to and from the memory unit and the peripheral, is termed as ______.
  1. ADDA
  2. BSerial Interface
  3. CBR
  4. DDMA
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Correct answer: (D) DMA

Explanation

DMA (Direct Memory Access) lets a peripheral transfer data directly to or from main memory without the CPU handling each word. The CPU only starts the transfer and is told when it ends.

Q13
The elements of the triangular array are stored as a vector in the order A[1, 1], A[2, 1], A[2, 2], A[3, 1], A[3, 2], A[3, 3] ......... A[n, n]. Assuming that A[1, 1] is stored at location 1, addressing function for A[i, j] is given by:
  1. A(i−1)/2 + j
  2. B((i−1)*i)/2 + j
  3. C(i×i)/2 + j
  4. D(i*j−1)/2
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Correct answer: (B) ((i−1)*i)/2 + j

Explanation

Rows 1 to i−1 hold 1 + 2 + … + (i−1) = i(i−1)/2 elements. A[i, j] is the j-th element of row i, so its location is i(i−1)/2 + j. Check: A[1,1] gives 0 + 1 = 1.

Q14
Consider the code segment written below in C++ : if (count < 10)//if#1 if ((count%4) ==2)//if#2 cout<<" condition;white/n"; else//(Indentation is wrong) cout<<" condition is:tan/n"; There are 2 if statements and one else. To which if, the else statement belong?
  1. AIt belongs to if # 1
  2. BIt belongs to if # 2
  3. CIt belongs to both the if statements.
  4. DIt is independent.
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Correct answer: (B) It belongs to if # 2

Explanation

In C++ an else pairs with the nearest preceding unmatched if (the dangling-else rule), whatever the indentation. So the else belongs to if#2.

Q15
The number of layers in ISO-OSI reference model is
  1. A5
  2. B7
  3. C9
  4. D6
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Correct answer: (B) 7

Explanation

The OSI model has 7 layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation and Application.

Q16
In the following pairs of OSI reference layers/sublayers and their functionality, the incorrect pair is
  1. ANetwork layer and routing
  2. BData link layer and bit synchronization
  3. CTransport layer and end-to-end process communication
  4. DMedium access control sublayer and channel sharing
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Correct answer: (B) Data link layer and bit synchronization

Explanation

Bit synchronization is done by the Physical layer, not the Data Link layer. Data Link handles framing, error control and flow control. The other pairs are correct.

Q17
What is the maximum number of characters (7 bits + parity) that can be transmitted in a second on a 19.2 kbps line? This asynchronous transmission requires 1 start bit and 1 stop bit.
  1. A192
  2. B240
  3. C1920
  4. D1966
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Correct answer: (C) 1920

Explanation

Each character needs 1 start + 7 data + 1 parity + 1 stop = 10 bits. So 19,200 bps ÷ 10 = 1920 characters per second.

Q18
In which layer of network architecture, the secured socket layer (SSL) is used?
  1. APhysical layer
  2. BSession layer
  3. CApplication layer
  4. DPresentation layer
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Correct answer: (D) Presentation layer

Explanation

SSL encrypts data and is traditionally placed at the Presentation layer in OSI terms, because encryption and decryption are presentation-layer jobs. It sits between the application and transport layers.

Q19
Which of the following is not a primitive data type?
  1. ABoolean
  2. BByte
  3. CString
  4. DDouble
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Correct answer: (C) String

Explanation

In Java, String is a class (a reference type), not a primitive type. boolean, byte and double are primitives.

Q20
The statements string var1[ ]; var1 = new string[3]; system.out.println (var1[1]); print
  1. AAn empty string
  2. BNull
  3. C0
  4. DA garbage character
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Correct answer: (B) Null

Explanation

new String[3] creates an array of references, and each element starts with the default value null. So printing var1[1] prints null.

Q21
Every EJB class file has
  1. AOne accompanying interface and one XML file
  2. BOne accompanying interface and two XML files
  3. CTwo accompanying interfaces and one XML file
  4. DTwo accompanying interfaces and two XML files
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Correct answer: (C) Two accompanying interfaces and one XML file

Explanation

An EJB (EJB 2.x) bean class comes with two interfaces, the home interface and the remote (or component) interface, plus one XML deployment descriptor (ejb-jar.xml).

Q22
In unit testing of a model, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. Then the reliability of the model is
  1. AGreater than 0.9
  2. BEqual to 0.9
  3. CAt most 0.81
  4. DAt least 1/0.81
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Correct answer: (C) At most 0.81

Explanation

Only 90% of the code was tested, and the success probability is 0.9. So reliability is at most 0.9 × 0.9 = 0.81.

Q23
What is the meaning of the following declaration in C programming language? int (*p) [5];
  1. AIt will result in compile error because there should not be any parenthesis, i.e., "int*p[5]" is valid
  2. Bp is a pointer to 5 integers
  3. Cp is a pointer to integer array
  4. Dp is a pointer to an array of 5 integers
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Correct answer: (D) p is a pointer to an array of 5 integers

Explanation

The parentheses bind * to p first, so p is a pointer, and that pointer points to an array of 5 ints. Without parentheses, int *p[5] would be an array of 5 pointers to int.

Q24
In the relation R = {(1,2), (2,3)}, the minimum number of ordered pairs that must be added to this set, so that the enlarged relation is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, is
  1. A4
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D7
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Correct answer: (D) 7

Explanation

Since 1~2 and 2~3, all of 1, 2 and 3 fall into one equivalence class. That needs all 3 × 3 = 9 ordered pairs. R already has 2, so 9 − 2 = 7 pairs must be added.

Q25
The range of the function f(x) = x²/(1+x²) is
  1. A(−∞, +∞)
  2. B(0, ∞)
  3. C(−∞, 0]
  4. D[0, 1)
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Correct answer: (D) [0, 1)

Explanation

x²/(1+x²) is 0 at x = 0 and approaches 1 as x grows, but never reaches 1 because x² < 1 + x². So the range is [0, 1).

Q26
A and B are two 8-bit numbers such that A + B ≤ 2⁸. The number of possible combination of A and B is
  1. A2⁹
  2. B2⁸
  3. C2¹⁶
  4. D2⁴ −1
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Correct answer: (C) 2¹⁶

Explanation

Answer as per the book's key (c) 2¹⁶ (the original exam key).

Q27
______ is an intermediate storage area used for data processing during the extract, transform and load process of data warehousing.
  1. AInter-storage area
  2. BBuffer
  3. CStaging area
  4. DVirtual memory
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Correct answer: (C) Staging area

Explanation

In ETL, the staging area is the intermediate storage where extracted data is cleaned and transformed before it is loaded into the data warehouse.

Q28
______ refers to the amount of time required to position the read – write head of a hard disk on appropriate sector.
  1. ALoad time
  2. BSeek time
  3. CAccess time
  4. DRotational latency
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Correct answer: (B) Seek time

Explanation

Seek time is the time to move the read/write head to the correct track. Rotational latency is the wait for the sector to rotate under the head, and access time is the two combined.

Q29
The logic circuit of binary adder which is used to add two 4-bits binary numbers, requires ______ half adder (s) and ______ full adder (s).
  1. A4 , 0
  2. B1 , 3
  3. C2 , 2
  4. D3 , 1
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Correct answer: (B) 1 , 3

Explanation

A 4-bit parallel (ripple-carry) adder uses one half adder for the least significant bit, which has no carry-in, and three full adders for the other three bits.

Q30
The 10Base5 cabling is also known as ______.
  1. AFast Ethernet
  2. BThick Ethernet
  3. CThin Ethernet
  4. DGigabit Ethernet
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Correct answer: (B) Thick Ethernet

Explanation

10Base5 is the original Thick Ethernet (thicknet): 10 Mbps, baseband, 500 m segments on thick coaxial cable. 10Base2 is Thin Ethernet.

Q31
Which of the following memory improves the speed of execution of a program?
  1. AVirtual memory
  2. BPrimary memory
  3. CSecondary memory
  4. DCache memory
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Correct answer: (D) Cache memory

Explanation

Cache memory is a small, very fast memory between the CPU and main memory. It holds frequently used data and instructions, so programs run faster.

Q32
Which of the following statements is false with respect to Relational DBMS?
  1. AA disadvantage of highly normalized tables is that queries may require too many time consuming joins.
  2. BForeign key constraints are referential integrity constraints.
  3. CA primary key uniquely indentifies a row in a table.
  4. DNulls reduce space requirements in tables.
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Correct answer: (D) Nulls reduce space requirements in tables.

Explanation

Nulls do not reduce storage space, so (D) is false. The other statements are true: heavy normalization means more joins, foreign keys enforce referential integrity, and a primary key uniquely identifies a row.

Q33
A register in the microprocessor that keeps track of the answer or result of any arithmetic or logic operation is the ______.
  1. AAccumulator
  2. BStack pointer
  3. CProgram counter
  4. DInstruction pointer
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Correct answer: (A) Accumulator

Explanation

The accumulator holds an operand and stores the result of arithmetic and logic operations. The program counter holds the next instruction's address, and the stack pointer holds the top of the stack.

Q34
If the time quantum size is 2 units of an there is only one job of 14 time unit in a ready queue, the round-robin scheduling algorithm will cause ______ context switches.
  1. A8
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D7
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Correct answer: (C) 6

Explanation

A 14-unit job with a 2-unit quantum runs in 7 slices. A switch is counted between slices, giving 7 − 1 = 6 context switches.

Q35
The problem of indefinite blockage of low-priority jobs in general priority scheduling algorithm can be solved using :
  1. ASwapping
  2. BDirty bit
  3. CAging
  4. DCompaction
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Correct answer: (C) Aging

Explanation

Aging gradually raises the priority of processes that have waited a long time. This prevents starvation (indefinite blocking) of low-priority jobs.

Q36
What result set is returned from the following SQL query ? Select customer_name, telephone From customers Where city in ('Jaipur','Delhi','Agra');
  1. AThe customer_name of all customers who are not living in Jaipur, Delhi or Agra.
  2. BThe customer_name and telephone of all customers.
  3. CThe customer_name and telephone of all customers living in either Jaipur, Delhi or Agra.
  4. DThe customer_name and telephone of all customers living in Jaipur, Delhi and Agra.
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Correct answer: (C) The customer_name and telephone of all customers living in either Jaipur, Delhi or Agra.

Explanation

IN matches any value in the list, so the query returns customer_name and telephone of customers whose city is Jaipur, Delhi or Agra. A customer cannot live in all three cities at once.

Q37
Which of the following memory is non-volatile?
  1. AROM
  2. BCache
  3. CROM and Cache
  4. DRAM
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Correct answer: (A) ROM

Explanation

ROM keeps its contents when power is off, so it is non-volatile. RAM and cache lose their data when power is removed.

Q38
The Boolean expression (A.B)' is equivalent to:
  1. AA'.B'
  2. BA+B'
  3. CA.B'
  4. DA'+B'
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Correct answer: (D) A'+B'

Explanation

By De Morgan's law, (A·B)' = A' + B'.

Q39
For the following Python statement Txt=list ('PEACE') What shall be the output of print (Txt)?
  1. A['P', 'E', 'A', 'C', 'E']
  2. B[P, E, A, C, E]
  3. CError in statement
  4. D['PEACE']
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Correct answer: (A) ['P', 'E', 'A', 'C', 'E']

Explanation

list() on a string makes a list of its individual characters, so list('PEACE') gives ['P', 'E', 'A', 'C', 'E'].

Q40
Select the correct output for the following Python code. for I in range (6, 1, -2) : print (end = '*$$')
  1. A*$$*$$
  2. B*$$ *$$ *$$
  3. C*$$*$$*$$
  4. D*$$ *$$
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Correct answer: (C) *$$*$$*$$

Explanation

range(6, 1, −2) gives 6, 4 and 2, so the loop runs 3 times. print(end='*$$') prints only '*$$' with no newline, giving *$$*$$*$$.

Q41
Which out of the following is considered as a membership operator in Python?
  1. AIn
  2. BOr
  3. CNot
  4. DIs
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Correct answer: (A) In

Explanation

Python's membership operators are 'in' and 'not in'. 'is' is an identity operator, and 'or'/'not' are logical operators.

Q42
Which string method, out of the following will always break the string into 3 parts in Python?
  1. ABreak
  2. BPartition
  3. CMid
  4. DSplit
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Correct answer: (B) Partition

Explanation

str.partition(sep) always returns a 3-tuple: the part before the separator, the separator, and the part after it. split() can return any number of parts.

Q43
Which type of cable has high bandwidth supports high data transfer rate, signals can travel longer distances and electromagnetic noise cannot affect the cable, however expensive. Identify the transmission media.
  1. ACoaxial Cable
  2. BOptical Fiber
  3. CTwisted Pair Cable
  4. DCat 6 Cable
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Correct answer: (B) Optical Fiber

Explanation

Optical fibre carries light signals. This gives very high bandwidth and long distances, and it is immune to electromagnetic interference, but it is expensive.

Q44
Select the correct full form of the term ARPANET from the given options.
  1. AAmerican Research Projects Advance Network
  2. BAmerican Research Programs Advance Netwrok
  3. CAdvance Research Programs Academic Netwrok
  4. DAdvanced Research Projects Agency Network
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Correct answer: (D) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network

Explanation

ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Network. It was the US Department of Defense network that led to the Internet.

Q45
The data blocks of a very large file in UNIX file system are allocated using
  1. Acontiguous allocation
  2. Blinked allocation
  3. Cindexed allocation
  4. Dan extension of indexed allocation
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Correct answer: (D) an extension of indexed allocation

Explanation

UNIX inodes use an extended indexed scheme: 12 direct block pointers plus single, double and triple indirect blocks. This lets very large files be addressed.

Q46
This effect is used to make a symbol disappear from view by using motion tweening and changing alpha settings of the symbol :
  1. AZoom effect
  2. BFade effect
  3. CMasking effect
  4. DMorphing effect
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Correct answer: (B) Fade effect

Explanation

In Flash, a fade effect is made with a motion tween that changes the symbol's alpha (transparency) from 100% to 0%, so the symbol gradually disappears.

Q47
3NF is based on the concept of :
  1. AFunctional dependency
  2. BClosure dependency
  3. CTransitive dependency
  4. DNormal dependency
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Correct answer: (C) Transitive dependency

Explanation

3NF removes transitive dependencies, where a non-key attribute depends on another non-key attribute. 2NF removes partial dependencies.

Q48
Which of the following is not an example of Database Application ?
  1. APayroll Management
  2. BDigital Drawing
  3. CHR Management
  4. DInvoicing System
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Correct answer: (B) Digital Drawing

Explanation

Digital drawing is a graphics application. Payroll, HR management and invoicing all store and manage records in databases.

Q49
Consider the following Inheritance in C++ : class Person { char AadharNo[12]; protected : char Name[20]; public : ______ ______ void Readdata( ); }; class Student : public Person { int Grade; public : ______ ______ }; What will be the visibility mode of Name and Readdata ( ) in the derived class student ?
  1. AName → Protected, Readdata → Protected
  2. BName → Protected, Readdata → Public
  3. CName → Private, Readdata → Protected
  4. DName → Public, Readdata → Public
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Correct answer: (B) Name → Protected, Readdata → Public

Explanation

With public inheritance, protected members stay protected and public members stay public in the derived class. So Name is protected and Readdata() is public. The private AadharNo is not accessible in Student.

Q50
Which of the following commands in C++ will open a text file NOTES.TXT for reading the content from it ?
  1. Aifstream F ("NOTES.TXT");
  2. Bofstream F ("NOTES.TXT");
  3. Cfstream F ("NOTES.TXT");
  4. Dfstream F ("NOTES.TXT", ios :: read);
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Correct answer: (A) ifstream F ("NOTES.TXT");

Explanation

ifstream opens a file for input (reading). ofstream is for writing. ios::read is not a valid mode.

Q51
As per the naming rules for variables in VISUAL BASIC, which of the following will be incorrect ?
  1. A_Amount
  2. BValue12
  3. CFirst Name
  4. DMySalary2Times
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Correct answer: (C) First Name

Explanation

Visual Basic variable names cannot contain spaces, so "First Name" is invalid. The keyed answer treats the other names as valid.

Q52
Which of the following will be true in Visual Basic?
  1. A"Care" > "care"
  2. B"Care" = "care"
  3. C"Care" < "care"
  4. DError, only numeric values allowed
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Correct answer: (C) "Care" < "care"

Explanation

VB's default (binary) string comparison uses character codes. 'C' (67) is less than 'c' (99), so "Care" < "care" is true.

Q53
Zero address instructions are necessarily used in ______ architecture.
  1. AStack
  2. BCISC
  3. CRISC
  4. DParallel
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Correct answer: (A) Stack

Explanation

A stack machine takes its operands implicitly from the top of the stack. So instructions like ADD need no address fields, which makes them zero-address instructions.

Q54
Consider the memory reference string given below, for a memory with 3 frames per process. 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3 The number of page faults for FIFO page replacement policy are ______.
  1. ATen
  2. BSeven
  3. CNine
  4. DEight
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Correct answer: (C) Nine

Explanation

With FIFO and 3 frames: 7, 0, 1, 2 are faults (4 so far), 0 is a hit, then 3, 0, 4, 2, 3 are all faults. That gives 9 page faults.

Q55
Which of the following statement is false with respect to CSS ?
  1. AIt Stands for Cascading Style Sheets
  2. BIt can control the layout of multiple webpages with a single file
  3. CCSS describes how HTML elements are Stored within tags
  4. DCSS describes how HTML elements are displayed on Screen
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Correct answer: (C) CSS describes how HTML elements are Stored within tags

Explanation

CSS describes how HTML elements are displayed (presented), not how they are stored within tags. So (C) is false.

Q56
Which of the following is not a feature of XML ?
  1. AXML is designed to carry data
  2. BXML is a complement to HTML
  3. CXML can separate design from HTML
  4. DXML can be used to create new languages
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Correct answer: (C) XML can separate design from HTML

Explanation

XML separates data from HTML, so it does not separate design (presentation) from HTML. The other options are standard XML features.

Q57
An attribute, which can be referenced to connect with primary key of another table is known as:
  1. ACandidate key
  2. BAlternate key
  3. CReferpoint key
  4. DForeign key
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Correct answer: (D) Foreign key

Explanation

A foreign key is an attribute in one table that refers to the primary key of another table, linking the two tables.

Q58
Which of the following SQL command will delete the structure as well as content of a table EMPLOYEE ?
  1. AERASE EMPLOYEE;
  2. BDELETE FROM EMPLOYEE;
  3. CDROP EMPLOYEE;
  4. DDROP TABLE EMPLOYEE;
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Correct answer: (D) DROP TABLE EMPLOYEE;

Explanation

DROP TABLE EMPLOYEE removes the table's structure and all its data. DELETE FROM only removes rows and keeps the structure.

Q59
In Visual Basic, different items appearing in the same value list of a SELECT CASE block must be separated by :
  1. A, (COMMA)
  2. B; (SEMI COLON)
  3. C: (COLON)
  4. D# (HASH)
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Correct answer: (A) , (COMMA)

Explanation

In a VB Select Case statement, multiple values in one Case are separated by commas, for example Case 1, 3, 5.

Q60
Key words in Visual Basic are words that :
  1. AHave specific meaning in Visual Basic that cannot be used for naming variables
  2. BCan be used for naming variables
  3. CAre used to be prefixed for control names such as txt, btn, lbl and lst
  4. DAre used as names of controls
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Correct answer: (A) Have specific meaning in Visual Basic that cannot be used for naming variables

Explanation

Keywords (reserved words) such as If, Dim and Loop have a predefined meaning in Visual Basic, so they cannot be used as variable names.

Q61
Consider three processes P₁, P₂, P₃, requiring 24, 3, 3 units of CPU time respectively. For time quantum of 4 units and Round - Robin scheduling policy, the average waiting time is ______.
  1. A5.66 units
  2. B17 units
  3. C10 units
  4. D15.66 units
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Correct answer: (A) 5.66 units

Explanation

With a quantum of 4: P1 runs 0–4, P2 runs 4–7, P3 runs 7–10, then P1 runs 10–30. Waiting times are P1 = 6, P2 = 4, P3 = 7. The average is 17/3 ≈ 5.66 units.

Q62
Which of the following options states the complete and correct sequence of steps to execute a program on a personal computer ?
  1. Acode → compile → link → load → execute
  2. Bdesign → code → compile → link → load → execute
  3. Ccode → compile → load → execute
  4. Ddesign → code → compile → load → execute
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Correct answer: (B) design → code → compile → link → load → execute

Explanation

The full sequence starts with designing the solution, then writing code, compiling it to object code, linking libraries, loading into memory and executing. The other options leave out design or linking.

Q63
In object-oriented programming, by wrapping up characteristics and behavior into one unit, we achieve
  1. AData abstraction
  2. BData encapsulation
  3. CData hiding
  4. DAll of these
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Correct answer: (B) Data encapsulation

Explanation

Encapsulation wraps data (characteristics) and the functions that act on it (behaviour) into one unit, the class. Data hiding and abstraction are results of this.

Q64
The term ______ refers to the use of electronics and software within a product, as opposed to a general-purpose computer, such as a laptop or desktop system.
  1. AComplex system
  2. BSimple system
  3. CFuzzy logic
  4. DEmbedded system
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Correct answer: (D) Embedded system

Explanation

An embedded system is electronics and software built into a product for a dedicated function, such as a washing machine or microwave controller, rather than a general-purpose computer.

Q65
What is the meaning of bandwidth in a network?
  1. ATransmission capacity of a communication channel.
  2. BConnected computers in a network.
  3. CClass of IP used in Network.
  4. DInterconnected by communication channels.
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Correct answer: (A) Transmission capacity of a communication channel.

Explanation

Bandwidth is the transmission capacity of a channel, meaning how much data it can carry per unit time, measured in bps or Hz.

Q66
Which one of the following transmission systems provides the highest data rate to an individual device ?
  1. AComputer bus
  2. BTelephone bus
  3. CVoice and mode
  4. DLease lines
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Correct answer: (A) Computer bus

Explanation

An internal computer bus moves data in parallel over very short distances, so it gives a far higher data rate than telephone lines, modems or leased lines.

Q67
The function of the XML Parser is to
  1. AConvert XML content into HTML content.
  2. BConvert XML content into DHTML content.
  3. CConvert XML content into XML DOM content.
  4. DConvert XML content into binary code.
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Correct answer: (C) Convert XML content into XML DOM content.

Explanation

An XML parser reads an XML document and turns it into an XML DOM object (a tree) that programs such as JavaScript can access and change.

Q68
The following data refer to a hard disk: number of tracks per side = 600; number of sides = 2 ; number of bytes per sector = 512; storage capacity in bytes = 21 504 000. Determine the number of sectors per track for this hard disk.
  1. A35
  2. B40
  3. C45
  4. D50
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Correct answer: (A) 35

Explanation

Capacity = tracks per side × sides × sectors per track × bytes per sector. So sectors per track = 21,504,000 ÷ (600 × 2 × 512) = 21,504,000 ÷ 614,400 = 35.

Q69
Refer to the monostable multivibrator circuit in the figure below. The trigger terminal (pin 2 of the IC ) is driven by a symmetrical pulsed waveform of 10 kHz. Determine the duty cycle of the output waveform. Circuit: a 555 timer IC; pins 4 and 8 are connected to Vcc; a 10 K resistor is connected from Vcc to pins 6 and 7 (joined together); a 0.01 capacitor is connected from pins 6,7 to ground; pin 5 is connected to ground through a 0.01 capacitor; pin 1 is grounded; the Trigger Input is applied to pin 2; the Output is taken from pin 3.
  1. A0.56
  2. B0.55
  3. C0.57
  4. D0.58
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Correct answer: (B) 0.55

Explanation

Answer as per the book's key (b).

Q70
In a Schmitt trigger inverter circuit, the two trip points are observed to occur at 1.8 and 2.8 V. At what input voltage levels will this device make (a) HIGH-to-LOW transition and (b) LOW-to-HIGH transition?
  1. A2.8 V & 1.8 V
  2. B3 V & 2 V
  3. C4 V & 2.2 V
  4. D2.6 V & 1.5 V
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Correct answer: (A) 2.8 V & 1.8 V

Explanation

In a Schmitt trigger inverter, the output goes HIGH to LOW when a rising input crosses the upper trip point, 2.8 V. It goes LOW to HIGH when a falling input crosses the lower trip point, 1.8 V.

Q71
Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers ?
  1. ATransport, Session, Presentation, Application.
  2. BNetwork, Transport, Session, presentation.
  3. CDatalink, Network, Transport, session.
  4. DPhysical, Datalink, Network, Transport.
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Correct answer: (A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application.

Explanation

The upper four OSI layers (Transport, Session, Presentation, Application) are host-to-host (end-to-end) layers. The lower layers handle hop-by-hop delivery over the network.

Q72
The following diagram depicts a ______ cell. Diagram: a box labelled "Binary Storage cell" with an Input arrow going in, an Output arrow coming out, and two control lines, Read and Write, entering it from below.
  1. AStorage
  2. BMobile
  3. CMemory
  4. DRegister
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Correct answer: (C) Memory

Explanation

A binary storage cell with input, output and Read/Write control lines is the basic building block of a memory. Each cell stores one bit, which is read or written as the control lines select.

Q73
Consider the following statements respect to JavaScript : (I) A variable is created using the var keyword. (II) JavaScript is untyped language. Which of the above are true ?
  1. ANeither (I) not (II)
  2. B(I) only
  3. C(II) only
  4. DBoth (I) and (II)
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Correct answer: (D) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation

JavaScript variables can be declared with var, and JavaScript is untyped (dynamically typed), so the same variable can hold any type. Both statements are true.

Q74
A condition that is caused by run-time error in a computer program is known as :
  1. AException
  2. BSyntax error
  3. CSemantic error
  4. DFault
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Correct answer: (A) Exception

Explanation

A run-time error raises an exception, an abnormal condition while the program runs. Syntax errors are caught at compile time.

Q75
When an ASP.NET file is placed on a an IIS server and viewed through a browser, the resulting HTML page contains?
  1. AA mix of ASP.NET and HTML code
  2. BAll ASP.NET code
  3. CAll HTML code
  4. DAs much ASP.NET code as is in the ASP.NET file
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Correct answer: (C) All HTML code

Explanation

The server runs the ASP.NET code and sends only the resulting HTML to the browser. So the page received contains no ASP.NET code.

Q76
In C++, which of the following statements correctly returns the memory from the dynamic array pointer pp to the free store?
  1. Adelete pp;
  2. Bdelete pp [];
  3. Cdelete [] pp;
  4. Ddelete *pp;
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Correct answer: (C) delete [] pp;

Explanation

Memory allocated with new[] must be freed with delete[]. So delete [] pp; is correct, and plain delete pp; on an array is undefined behaviour.

Q77
An operating system contains 3 user processes each requiring 2 units of resource R. The minimum number of units of R such that no deadlock will ever occur is :
  1. A5
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4
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Correct answer: (D) 4

Explanation

Deadlock is impossible if R ≥ n(k−1) + 1, where n is the number of processes and k the units each needs. Here 3 × (2−1) + 1 = 4. With 4 units, at least one process can always finish.

Q78
The number of bits require to represent decimal number 4096 in binary from is ______.
  1. A16
  2. B10
  3. C12
  4. D13
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Correct answer: (D) 13

Explanation

4096 = 2¹², which is 1 followed by twelve 0s in binary. That takes 13 bits, while 12 bits only go up to 4095.

Q79
What is garbage collection in the context of Java?
  1. AThe Java Virtual Machine (JVM) checks the output of any Java program and deletes anything that does not make sense at all.
  2. BThe Operating System periodically deletes all of the Java files available on the system.
  3. CAny Java package imported in a program and not being used, is automatically deleted.
  4. DWhen all references to an object are gone, then the memory used by the object is automatically reclaimed.
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Correct answer: (D) When all references to an object are gone, then the memory used by the object is automatically reclaimed.

Explanation

Java garbage collection automatically reclaims the memory of objects that no longer have any references to them, so the programmer does not free memory by hand.

Q80
What is the full form of DTD that is used to describe content in an XHTML document?
  1. ADocument To Definition
  2. BDocument Type Definition
  3. CDocument Towards Definition
  4. DDocument Text Definition
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Correct answer: (B) Document Type Definition

Explanation

DTD stands for Document Type Definition. It defines the legal elements, attributes and structure of an XML or XHTML document.

Q81
Which of the following is the most appropriate format for graphics that are to be embedded within an Internet documents?
  1. AHTML
  2. BBMP
  3. CTIFF
  4. DGIF
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Correct answer: (D) GIF

Explanation

GIF is a compressed, widely supported image format made for the web. BMP and TIFF files are large and not suited to web pages, and HTML is not a graphics format.

Q82
Which of the following is true to define a variable for ASP?
  1. AVar
  2. BDim
  3. C$
  4. DSet
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Correct answer: (B) Dim

Explanation

In classic ASP (VBScript), variables are declared with the Dim statement, for example Dim name.

Q83
Which of the following is the most appropriate format for graphics that are to be embedded within an Internet documents?
  1. AHTML
  2. BBMP
  3. CTIFF
  4. DGIF
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) GIF

Explanation

GIF is a compressed, widely supported image format made for the web. BMP and TIFF files are large and not suited to web pages, and HTML is not a graphics format.

Q84
Which of the following is true to define a variable for ASP?
  1. AVar
  2. BDim
  3. C$
  4. DSet
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Correct answer: (B) Dim

Explanation

In classic ASP (VBScript), variables are declared with the Dim statement, for example Dim name.

Q85
Given the following two statements about SQL. (A) An SQL query can contain HAVING clause only if it has GROUP BY clause. (B) In an SQL query "SELECT_FROM_WHERE_GROUP BY_HAVING". HAVING is executed before WHERE. Which of the following is correct?
  1. A(A) and (B) both are true
  2. B(A) is true, (B) is false
  3. C(A) is false, (B) is true
  4. D(A) and (B) both are false
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Correct answer: (D) (A) and (B) both are false

Explanation

Corrected: the book's key says (b). HAVING can be used without GROUP BY (the whole result is one group), and WHERE is applied before HAVING, so both statements are false.

Q86
To load a byte of data parallelly into a shift register with a synchronous load, there must be ______.
  1. AOne clock pulse
  2. BOne clock pulse for each 1 in the data
  3. CEight clock pulses
  4. DOne clock pulse for each 0 in the data
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Correct answer: (A) One clock pulse

Explanation

In a synchronous parallel-load shift register, all 8 bits enter their flip-flops at the same time. So a single clock pulse loads the whole byte.

Q87
Given an instance of the relation R(ABCD). A | B | C | D a₁ | b₁ | c₁ | d₁ a₁ | b₂ | c₂ | d₂ a₂ | b₂ | c₂ | d₃ a₃ | b₃ | c₄ | d₃ Which of the following functional dependencies hold?
  1. A{A B} → D and D → A
  2. B{A B → C} and B → D
  3. C{A B} → C and B → C
  4. D{A B} → D and A → D
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Correct answer: (C) {A B} → C and B → C

Explanation

AB → C holds because every (A, B) pair is unique, and B → C holds because b1→c1, b2→c2 (twice) and b3→c4. B → D fails (b2 gives d2 and d3), as do D → A and A → D.

Q88
The electromagnetic waves ranging in frequencies between 1 GHz and 300 GHz are called ______.
  1. ARadio waves
  2. BMicro waves
  3. CInfrared waves
  4. DLight waves
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Correct answer: (B) Micro waves

Explanation

Frequencies from about 1 GHz to 300 GHz are microwaves, used for satellite, radar and point-to-point links. Radio waves are below this range and infrared is above it.

Q89
Depreciation is charged on fixed assets to:
  1. AIncrease profit
  2. BReduce liabilities
  3. CAllocate the cost of the asset over its useful life
  4. DIncrease the asset value
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Correct answer: (C) Allocate the cost of the asset over its useful life

Explanation

Depreciation spreads (allocates) the cost of a fixed asset over its useful life, matching the expense to the periods that benefit from the asset.

Q90
Which of the following transactions increases the capital of the owner?
  1. AWithdrawal of cash for personal use
  2. BNet Profit earned during the year
  3. CPayment to creditors
  4. DPurchase of furniture
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Correct answer: (B) Net Profit earned during the year

Explanation

Net profit earned is added to the owner's capital. Drawings reduce capital, while paying creditors or buying furniture only changes assets and liabilities.

Q91
There are mother centric societies where the eldest woman in the family is the leader. The power of property passes from mother to daughter. Which society is being referred to ?
  1. AA marriage system
  2. BPatriarchy
  3. CMatriarchy
  4. DMisogyny
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Correct answer: (C) Matriarchy

Explanation

In a matriarchy the eldest woman heads the family, and property and lineage pass from mother to daughter. The Khasi and Garo of Meghalaya are examples.

Q92
Which of the following is not an aspect of curriculum ?
  1. ADesign
  2. BDesigning co-curriculum activities
  3. CResults
  4. DEducation goals and objectives
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Correct answer: (B) Designing co-curriculum activities

Explanation

Per the keyed answer, designing co-curricular activities is treated as a separate activity, not one of the core aspects of curriculum. The core aspects are goals and objectives, design (content and methods) and results (evaluation).

Q93
Which of the following is not a feature of curriculum?
  1. ACurriculum includes all activities
  2. BCurriculum as the end
  3. CCurriculum as a resources
  4. DCurriculum as experience
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Correct answer: (B) Curriculum as the end

Explanation

Curriculum is seen as a means to achieve educational goals, not an end in itself. It includes all activities and serves as both a resource and an experience.

Q94
The sum total of all the activities, academic and non-academic, which is impact on the student's accessibility is called
  1. ABlock
  2. BSyllabus
  3. CCurriculum
  4. DCurriculum activities
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Correct answer: (C) Curriculum

Explanation

Curriculum is the sum total of all experiences and activities, academic and co-curricular, that a school provides to shape a student. Syllabus covers only the subject content.

Q95
Which of the following is not an important concepts of Vygotsky's theory ?
  1. Asocial interaction
  2. Bculture
  3. Clanguage
  4. Dassessments
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Correct answer: (D) assessments

Explanation

Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory centres on social interaction, culture and language (with ZPD and scaffolding). Assessment is not one of its key concepts.

Q96
Proximal distance field and scaffolding are some of the major processes of child development. Who gave these words ?
  1. ARousseau
  2. BVygotsky
  3. CKohlberg
  4. DPiaget
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Correct answer: (B) Vygotsky

Explanation

Lev Vygotsky gave the concepts of the Zone of Proximal Development and scaffolding, meaning support from a more knowledgeable person that is gradually withdrawn.

Q97
Every child to the age of six to fourteen years shall have the right to free and compulsory education in a nearby school till the completion of his elementary education. Which act provides the above recommendation?
  1. AKothari commission
  2. BNational policy on education 1986
  3. CNational campaign for secondary education
  4. DRight to education act, 2009
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Correct answer: (D) Right to education act, 2009

Explanation

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 guarantees free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 in a neighbourhood school.

Q98
Which of the following is not a determinant of curriculum?
  1. APersonal talent
  2. Bsocial aspect
  3. CGender role
  4. DBasic needs
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Correct answer: (C) Gender role

Explanation

Curriculum is shaped by learners' needs and abilities and by social aspects. Gender roles should not determine curriculum, which must be gender-neutral.

Q99
National education commission (1964-1966) is popularly known as ?
  1. AUniversity education commission
  2. BNational knowledge commission
  3. CKothari commission
  4. DSecondary education commission
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Correct answer: (C) Kothari commission

Explanation

The Education Commission of 1964–66 was chaired by Dr. D. S. Kothari, so it is popularly called the Kothari Commission.

Q100
Women are considered weak and flawed, they need protection and not being able to survive alone means ______
  1. AInequality
  2. BStereotype
  3. CEquity
  4. DGender bias
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Correct answer: (B) Stereotype

Explanation

Seeing all women as weak and needing protection is a stereotype: a fixed, oversimplified belief applied to a whole group.

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