Full Mock Test · Questions with answers

DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 1

All 200 questions of DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 1 with the correct answer and a solution. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the paper as a timed online test.

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General Awareness 20 questions

Q1
The India AI Impact Summit 2026, the first global AI summit hosted in the Global South, was held at which venue?
  1. AMahatma Mandir, Gandhinagar
  2. BBharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  3. CJio World Centre, Mumbai
  4. DYashobhoomi, New Delhi
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Correct answer: (B) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi

Q2
India's first hydrogen-powered train (indigenous hydrogen fuel-cell trainset) was launched in July 2026 on which railway section?
  1. AGurugram – Rewari
  2. BDelhi – Panipat
  3. CJind – Sonipat
  4. DKalka – Shimla
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Correct answer: (C) Jind – Sonipat

Q3
Under the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB-G RAM G] Act, which replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026, how many days of wage employment are guaranteed annually to an eligible rural household?
  1. A125 days
  2. B120 days
  3. C150 days
  4. D100 days
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Correct answer: (A) 125 days

Q4
Which State ranked first among the large States in NITI Aayog's Investment Friendliness Index (IFI) 2026?
  1. AMaharashtra
  2. BGujarat
  3. CTamil Nadu
  4. DUttar Pradesh
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Correct answer: (B) Gujarat

Q5
According to the Ministry of Defence, what was India's record defence export figure for FY 2025–26?
  1. A₹45,150 crore
  2. B₹38,424 crore
  3. C₹30,500 crore
  4. D₹23,622 crore
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Correct answer: (B) ₹38,424 crore

Q6
The 52nd G7 Summit was held in June 2026 at Évian-les-Bains in which country?
  1. AFrance
  2. BCanada
  3. CJapan
  4. DItaly
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Correct answer: (A) France

Q7
Which country ranked first in the World Happiness Report 2026?
  1. ADenmark
  2. BSwitzerland
  3. CIceland
  4. DFinland
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Correct answer: (D) Finland

Q8
In January 2026, India concluded Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations, described as a landmark deal, with which grouping at a summit in New Delhi?
  1. AASEAN
  2. BEFTA
  3. CGulf Cooperation Council
  4. DEuropean Union
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Correct answer: (D) European Union

Q9
The multilateral military exercise PRAGATI 2026 was conducted by the Indian Army at which military station?
  1. APithoragarh, Uttarakhand
  2. BMissamari, Assam
  3. CUmroi, Meghalaya
  4. DMahajan, Rajasthan
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Correct answer: (C) Umroi, Meghalaya

Q10
As per the Union Budget 2026–27, the fiscal deficit for 2026–27 (Budget Estimates) has been fixed at:
  1. A4.0% of GDP
  2. B4.5% of GDP
  3. C4.3% of GDP
  4. D4.4% of GDP
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Correct answer: (C) 4.3% of GDP

Q11
In February 2026, MoSPI released a new series of GDP estimates. Which year was adopted as the new base year?
  1. A2022–23
  2. B2011–12
  3. C2020–21
  4. D2017–18
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Correct answer: (A) 2022–23

Q12
The Income-tax Act, 2025, which replaced the Income Tax Act, 1961, came into effect from:
  1. A1 April 2026
  2. B1 October 2026
  3. C1 February 2026
  4. D1 July 2025
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Correct answer: (A) 1 April 2026

Q13
Which two countries jointly hosted the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2026?
  1. AAustralia and New Zealand
  2. BIndia and Sri Lanka
  3. CWest Indies and USA
  4. DIndia and Bangladesh
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Correct answer: (B) India and Sri Lanka

Q14
The 2026 Commonwealth Games (23 July – 2 August 2026) were held in which city?
  1. ABirmingham
  2. BVictoria
  3. CGold Coast
  4. DGlasgow
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Correct answer: (D) Glasgow

Q15
Which sport made its Olympic debut at the Milano Cortina 2026 Winter Olympics?
  1. ACurling
  2. BSnowboard cross
  3. CSki mountaineering
  4. DSkeleton
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Correct answer: (C) Ski mountaineering

Q16
Which wetland was designated as India's 100th Ramsar site on World Environment Day, 5 June 2026?
  1. APatna Bird Sanctuary
  2. BKeoladeo National Park
  3. CChhari-Dhand
  4. DJai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary
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Correct answer: (D) Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary

Q17
The BBNJ Agreement (High Seas Treaty), which entered into force on 17 January 2026, primarily deals with:
  1. AConservation of inland wetlands
  2. BMarine biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction
  3. CProtection of the ozone layer
  4. DReduction of plastic pollution on land
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Correct answer: (B) Marine biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction

Q18
National Statistics Day, observed on 29 June every year, marks the birth anniversary of:
  1. AP. C. Mahalanobis
  2. BC. R. Rao
  3. CP. V. Sukhatme
  4. DD. R. Gadgil
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Correct answer: (A) P. C. Mahalanobis

Q19
What was the theme of the International Day of Yoga 2026?
  1. AYoga for One Earth, One Health
  2. BYoga for Humanity
  3. CYoga for Healthy Ageing
  4. DYoga for Self and Society
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Correct answer: (C) Yoga for Healthy Ageing

Q20
In July 2026, the Supreme Court held that a judgment based on AI-generated fake (hallucinated) precedents will be treated as:
  1. AA valid but voidable judgment
  2. BA binding precedent until overruled
  3. CA judgment open only to review
  4. DNo judgment in the eyes of law
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Correct answer: (D) No judgment in the eyes of law

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability 20 questions

Q21
Find the missing number: 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
  1. A54
  2. B48
  3. C52
  4. D50
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Correct answer: (C) 52

Explanation

Differences are 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 → 39 + 13 = 52.

Q22
Find the next term: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?
  1. AIR
  2. BHR
  3. CIS
  4. DHS
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Correct answer: (A) IR

Explanation

First letter +2 (A,C,E,G,I); second letter −2 (Z,X,V,T,R) → IR.

Q23
In a certain code language, DELHI is written as EFMIJ. How is MUMBAI written in that code?
  1. ANVNCBJ
  2. BNVMCBJ
  3. CLTLAZH
  4. DNWNCBJ
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Correct answer: (A) NVNCBJ

Explanation

Each letter is moved +1: M→N, U→V, M→N, B→C, A→B, I→J → NVNCBJ.

Q24
If BOOK is coded as 43, then how is PEN coded?
  1. A33
  2. B34
  3. C35
  4. D36
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Correct answer: (C) 35

Explanation

Sum of letter positions: B(2)+O(15)+O(15)+K(11)=43. PEN = 16+5+14 = 35.

Q25
Find the odd one out: 17, 23, 29, 33
  1. A29
  2. B33
  3. C23
  4. D17
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Correct answer: (B) 33

Explanation

17, 23, 29 are prime numbers; 33 = 3 × 11 is not prime.

Q26
Find the odd one out: Copper, Iron, Brass, Zinc
  1. ABrass
  2. BIron
  3. CCopper
  4. DZinc
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Correct answer: (A) Brass

Explanation

Copper, Iron and Zinc are pure metals (elements); Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

Q27
Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
  1. ABook
  2. BSchool
  3. CClassroom
  4. DStudent
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Correct answer: (B) School

Explanation

A doctor works in a hospital; a teacher works in a school (workplace relation).

Q28
6 : 42 :: 8 : ?
  1. A64
  2. B80
  3. C72
  4. D56
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Correct answer: (C) 72

Explanation

n : n × (n+1) → 6 × 7 = 42, so 8 × 9 = 72.

Q29
ACE : BDF :: GIK : ?
  1. AHKL
  2. BHJL
  3. CIJL
  4. DHJM
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Correct answer: (B) HJL

Explanation

Each letter moved +1: G→H, I→J, K→L → HJL.

Q30
If '+' means '×', '−' means '÷', '×' means '+' and '÷' means '−', then the value of 8 + 4 − 2 × 6 ÷ 3 is:
  1. A13
  2. B21
  3. C19
  4. D17
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Correct answer: (C) 19

Explanation

8 × 4 ÷ 2 + 6 − 3 = 16 + 6 − 3 = 19.

Q31
If 3 * 4 = 25 and 5 * 6 = 61, then 2 * 7 = ?
  1. A55
  2. B49
  3. C51
  4. D53
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Correct answer: (D) 53

Explanation

a * b = a² + b² → 9+16=25, 25+36=61, so 4 + 49 = 53.

Q32
In a row of 40 students, Ravi is 15th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?
  1. A27
  2. B26
  3. C25
  4. D24
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Correct answer: (B) 26

Explanation

Position from right = 40 − 15 + 1 = 26.

Q33
In a class, Amit ranks 12th from the top and 29th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?
  1. A41
  2. B39
  3. C40
  4. D42
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Correct answer: (C) 40

Explanation

Total = 12 + 29 − 1 = 40.

Q34
Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
  1. AAunt
  2. BDaughter
  3. CSister
  4. DMother
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Correct answer: (C) Sister

Explanation

Only son of my grandfather = my father. Daughter of my father = my sister.

Q35
A man walks 5 km towards North, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
  1. A8 km, East
  2. B5 km, North
  3. C3 km, West
  4. D3 km, East
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Correct answer: (D) 3 km, East

Explanation

North 5, then East 3, then South 5 → net displacement 3 km East.

Q36
A, B, C, D and E have different weights. A is heavier than B but lighter than C. D is lighter than B. E is the heaviest. Who is the third heaviest?
  1. AB
  2. BC
  3. CA
  4. DD
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Correct answer: (C) A

Explanation

Order: E > C > A > B > D. Third heaviest = A.

Q37
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits opposite D. B sits immediately to the right of A. E sits immediately to the left of D. C is not a neighbour of D. Who sits opposite B?
  1. AC
  2. BE
  3. CF
  4. DA
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Correct answer: (C) F

Explanation

With A opposite D, B next to A and E next to D on the same side, C (not adjacent to D) takes the seat beside A, leaving F beside D on the other side — F is opposite B.

Q38
Statement: Should plastic bags be completely banned? Arguments: I. Yes, plastic bags are non-biodegradable and harm the environment. II. No, plastic bags are available in many attractive colours.
  1. AOnly argument II is strong
  2. BBoth I and II are strong
  3. CNeither I nor II is strong
  4. DOnly argument I is strong
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Correct answer: (D) Only argument I is strong

Explanation

Argument I gives a serious, relevant reason. Argument II (colours) is trivial and irrelevant → only I is strong.

Q39
Statements: All pens are books. Some books are tables. Conclusions: I. Some pens are tables. II. Some tables are books.
  1. ANeither follows
  2. BBoth follow
  3. COnly I follows
  4. DOnly II follows
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Correct answer: (D) Only II follows

Explanation

'Some books are tables' can be reversed → 'Some tables are books' (II follows). Pens may or may not be tables → I does not follow.

Q40
Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among: Fruits, Mango, Apple?
  1. ATwo separate small circles inside one big circle
  2. BThree separate circles, none overlapping
  3. CThree circles overlapping one another
  4. DThree concentric circles, one inside the other
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Correct answer: (A) Two separate small circles inside one big circle

Explanation

(A) Two separate circles inside a big circle. Mango and Apple are two different fruits → two separate small circles inside the big circle 'Fruits'.

Arithmetical & Numerical Ability 20 questions

Q41
What value will come in place of the question mark (?): 3/4 of 48 ÷ 6 + 15 × 2 − 8 = ?
  1. A31
  2. B28
  3. C34
  4. D22
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Correct answer: (B) 28

Q42
What is the unit digit of 7⁹⁵ × 3⁵⁸?
  1. A9
  2. B3
  3. C7
  4. D1
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Correct answer: (C) 7

Q43
Find the least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves a remainder of 8 in each case.
  1. A548
  2. B1088
  3. C532
  4. D540
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Correct answer: (A) 548

Q44
In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 90 votes were declared invalid. The winner got 54% of the valid votes and won by 1620 votes. Find the total number of voters.
  1. A22500
  2. B22600
  3. C20250
  4. D22800
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Correct answer: (B) 22600

Q45
If the price of sugar increases by 25%, by how much percent must a family reduce its consumption so that the expenditure remains the same?
  1. A22.5%
  2. B20%
  3. C15%
  4. D25%
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Correct answer: (B) 20%

Q46
A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 15%. His profit percent is:
  1. A19%
  2. B25%
  3. C17%
  4. D21%
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Correct answer: (A) 19%

Q47
By selling an article for ₹ 720, a man loses 10%. At what price should he sell it to gain 15%?
  1. A₹ 900
  2. B₹ 940
  3. C₹ 880
  4. D₹ 920
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Correct answer: (D) ₹ 920

Q48
A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 900 g instead of 1 kg. His gain percent is:
  1. A9 1/11 %
  2. B10%
  3. C12.5%
  4. D11 1/9 %
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Correct answer: (D) 11 1/9 %

Q49
A train 240 m long passes a pole in 12 seconds. How long will it take to cross a platform 360 m long?
  1. A24 s
  2. B36 s
  3. C30 s
  4. D18 s
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Correct answer: (C) 30 s

Q50
A person goes from A to B at 40 km/h and returns from B to A at 60 km/h. His average speed for the whole journey is:
  1. A52 km/h
  2. B45 km/h
  3. C48 km/h
  4. D50 km/h
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Correct answer: (C) 48 km/h

Q51
Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new ratio becomes 12 : 23. The smaller number is:
  1. A33
  2. B55
  3. C39
  4. D27
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Correct answer: (A) 33

Q52
The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of the first six results is 49 and that of the last six is 52, the sixth result is:
  1. A56
  2. B54
  3. C52
  4. D50
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Correct answer: (A) 56

Q53
A sum of money becomes 7/4 of itself in 6 years at simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is:
  1. A13%
  2. B12.5%
  3. C11.5%
  4. D10%
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Correct answer: (B) 12.5%

Q54
The difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹ 8000 for 2 years at 5% per annum is:
  1. A₹ 25
  2. B₹ 16
  3. C₹ 40
  4. D₹ 20
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Correct answer: (D) ₹ 20

Q55
A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B in 20 days. They work together for 4 days and then A leaves. In how many days will B finish the remaining work?
  1. A9 1/3 days
  2. B10 days
  3. C10 2/3 days
  4. D11 1/3 days
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Correct answer: (C) 10 2/3 days

Q56
Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively, while pipe C can empty the full tank in 20 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, the tank will be filled in:
  1. A8 hours
  2. B9 hours
  3. C12 hours
  4. D10 hours
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Correct answer: (D) 10 hours

Q57
The radius of a closed cylinder is 7 cm and its height is 10 cm. Its total surface area is (take π = 22/7):
  1. A704 cm²
  2. B748 cm²
  3. C594 cm²
  4. D440 cm²
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Correct answer: (B) 748 cm²

Q58
A and B start a business with ₹ 24,000 and ₹ 36,000 respectively. After 4 months, A invests ₹ 12,000 more. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹ 34,000, A's share is:
  1. A₹ 16,000
  2. B₹ 18,000
  3. C₹ 17,000
  4. D₹ 15,000
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Correct answer: (A) ₹ 16,000

Q59
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Sales of books by a publisher (in thousands): 2019: 45, 2020: 60, 2021: 75, 2022: 50, 2023: 70 What is the average annual sale of books over the five years?
  1. A58 thousand
  2. B65 thousand
  3. C60 thousand
  4. D62 thousand
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Correct answer: (C) 60 thousand

Q60
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Sales of books by a publisher (in thousands): 2019: 45, 2020: 60, 2021: 75, 2022: 50, 2023: 70 What is the percentage increase in the sale of books from 2022 to 2023?
  1. A28.5%
  2. B35%
  3. C20%
  4. D40%
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Correct answer: (D) 40%

Hindi Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q61
'घड़ों पानी पड़ना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है —
  1. Aसंकट में पड़ना
  2. Bबहुत वर्षा होना
  3. Cबहुत प्यास लगना
  4. Dअत्यंत लज्जित होना
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Correct answer: (D) अत्यंत लज्जित होना

Explanation

घड़ों पानी पड़ना = अत्यंत लज्जित होना। TGT 2021 में दो बार पूछा गया।

Q62
'ऊँची दुकान फीका पकवान' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है —
  1. Aमिठाई का फीकापन
  2. Bमहँगी वस्तु अच्छी होती है
  3. Cबाहरी दिखावा अधिक, गुण कम
  4. Dदुकानदार की बेईमानी
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Correct answer: (C) बाहरी दिखावा अधिक, गुण कम

Explanation

केवल बाहरी आडंबर, भीतर गुण नहीं।

Q63
'जो ईश्वर में विश्वास रखता हो' — वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द
  1. Aनास्तिक
  2. Bआस्तिक
  3. Cधार्मिक
  4. Dआध्यात्मिक
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Correct answer: (B) आस्तिक

Explanation

ईश्वर में विश्वास रखने वाला = आस्तिक; न रखने वाला = नास्तिक।

Q64
'जल' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है —
  1. Aदधि
  2. Bतोय
  3. Cवारि
  4. Dअम्बु
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Correct answer: (A) दधि

Explanation

दधि = दही। वारि, तोय, अम्बु — जल के पर्यायवाची।

Q65
'अनुराग' का विलोम शब्द है —
  1. Aप्रेम
  2. Bअनुरक्त
  3. Cविराग
  4. Dआसक्ति
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Correct answer: (C) विराग

Explanation

अनुराग (प्रेम) ↔ विराग (वैराग्य)।

Q66
'हस्त' का तद्भव रूप है —
  1. Aहस्तक
  2. Bहत्था
  3. Cहाथ
  4. Dहस्ती
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Correct answer: (C) हाथ

Explanation

हस्त (तत्सम) → हाथ (तद्भव)। TGT 2025 में पूछा गया।

Q67
'इत्यादि' का सही संधि-विच्छेद है —
  1. Aइत्य + आदि
  2. Bइत + यादि
  3. Cइति + यादि
  4. Dइति + आदि
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Correct answer: (D) इति + आदि

Explanation

इति + आदि = इत्यादि (यण संधि: इ → य)। TGT में 3 बार पूछा गया।

Q68
'गिरहकट' में समास है —
  1. Aद्वंद्व
  2. Bकर्मधारय
  3. Cबहुव्रीहि
  4. Dतत्पुरुष
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Correct answer: (D) तत्पुरुष

Explanation

गिरह को काटने वाला — कर्म तत्पुरुष।

Q69
'राम ने कलम ___ पत्र लिखा।' — रिक्त स्थान में उचित परसर्ग
  1. Aपर
  2. Bसे
  3. Cमें
  4. Dको
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Correct answer: (B) से

Explanation

साधन (कलम) के साथ 'से' — करण कारक।

Q70
शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है —
  1. Aरचयता
  2. Bरचयिता
  3. Cरचियता
  4. Dरचयीता
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Correct answer: (B) रचयिता

Explanation

शुद्ध रूप 'रचयिता' है। TGT 2021 में दो बार पूछा गया।

Q71
'हमारे घर में प्रत्येक सदस्यों को सुबह जल्दी उठना पड़ता है।' — वाक्य के किस भाग में त्रुटि है?
  1. Aप्रत्येक सदस्यों को
  2. Bसुबह जल्दी
  3. Cउठना पड़ता है
  4. Dहमारे घर में
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Correct answer: (A) प्रत्येक सदस्यों को

Explanation

'प्रत्येक' के साथ एकवचन आता है — 'प्रत्येक सदस्य को'।

Q72
वाक्यांशों का सही क्रम चुनिए — (P) संसार को (Q) महात्मा गांधी ने (R) सत्य और अहिंसा का (S) मार्ग दिखाया
  1. ASPQR
  2. BPQRS
  3. CQPRS
  4. DRSQP
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Correct answer: (C) QPRS

Explanation

महात्मा गांधी ने संसार को सत्य और अहिंसा का मार्ग दिखाया।

Q73
'पीपर पात सरिस मन डोला' में अलंकार है —
  1. Aरूपक
  2. Bउत्प्रेक्षा
  3. Cयमक
  4. Dउपमा
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Correct answer: (D) उपमा

Explanation

वाचक शब्द 'सरिस' (समान) — उपमा। TGT 2023 में पूछा गया।

Q74
'बुढ़ापा' कौन-सी संज्ञा है?
  1. Aजातिवाचक
  2. Bभाववाचक
  3. Cसमूहवाचक
  4. Dव्यक्तिवाचक
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Correct answer: (B) भाववाचक

Explanation

अवस्था का बोध कराने वाली संज्ञा — भाववाचक (बूढ़ा + आपा)।

Q75
'प्रदूषण की समस्या आज पूरे विश्व के सामने ___ रूप ले चुकी है।'
  1. Aनिकट
  2. Bसाधारण
  3. Cसरल
  4. Dविकराल
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Correct answer: (D) विकराल

Explanation

समस्या के भयानक रूप के लिए 'विकराल'। TGT 2021 में पूछा गया।

Q76
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। जल ही जीवन है — यह कथन जितना पुराना है, उतना ही सत्य भी। पृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है, किंतु इसमें से पीने योग्य मीठा जल बहुत थोड़ा है। बढ़ती जनसंख्या, अनियंत्रित शहरीकरण और उद्योगों के कारण भूजल का स्तर निरंतर नीचे जा रहा है। अनेक नगरों में गर्मियों के आते ही पानी के लिए लंबी कतारें लग जाती हैं। हमारे पूर्वज कुएँ, बावड़ियाँ और तालाब बनाकर वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे; आज हम उस परंपरा को भूलते जा रहे हैं। यदि हर घर की छत से बहने वाले वर्षा-जल को एकत्र कर भूमि में उतारा जाए, तो भूजल फिर से भर सकता है। जल संरक्षण केवल सरकार का दायित्व नहीं है; यह प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है। नल खुला न छोड़ना, टपकती टोंटियों की मरम्मत कराना और पानी का दोबारा उपयोग करना — ये छोटे-छोटे उपाय मिलकर बड़ा परिवर्तन ला सकते हैं। गद्यांश के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक है —
  1. Aजल संरक्षण : हमारा दायित्व
  2. Bप्राचीन बावड़ियाँ
  3. Cशहरीकरण की समस्या
  4. Dबढ़ती जनसंख्या
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Correct answer: (A) जल संरक्षण : हमारा दायित्व

Explanation

गद्यांश का मुख्य विषय जल संरक्षण और नागरिकों का कर्तव्य है।

Q77
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। जल ही जीवन है — यह कथन जितना पुराना है, उतना ही सत्य भी। पृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है, किंतु इसमें से पीने योग्य मीठा जल बहुत थोड़ा है। बढ़ती जनसंख्या, अनियंत्रित शहरीकरण और उद्योगों के कारण भूजल का स्तर निरंतर नीचे जा रहा है। अनेक नगरों में गर्मियों के आते ही पानी के लिए लंबी कतारें लग जाती हैं। हमारे पूर्वज कुएँ, बावड़ियाँ और तालाब बनाकर वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे; आज हम उस परंपरा को भूलते जा रहे हैं। यदि हर घर की छत से बहने वाले वर्षा-जल को एकत्र कर भूमि में उतारा जाए, तो भूजल फिर से भर सकता है। जल संरक्षण केवल सरकार का दायित्व नहीं है; यह प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है। नल खुला न छोड़ना, टपकती टोंटियों की मरम्मत कराना और पानी का दोबारा उपयोग करना — ये छोटे-छोटे उपाय मिलकर बड़ा परिवर्तन ला सकते हैं। गद्यांश के अनुसार भूजल-स्तर गिरने का कारण नहीं बताया गया है —
  1. Aबढ़ती जनसंख्या
  2. Bअनियंत्रित शहरीकरण
  3. Cवनों की कटाई
  4. Dउद्योग
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Correct answer: (C) वनों की कटाई

Explanation

गद्यांश में केवल जनसंख्या, शहरीकरण और उद्योगों का उल्लेख है; वनों की कटाई का नहीं।

Q78
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। जल ही जीवन है — यह कथन जितना पुराना है, उतना ही सत्य भी। पृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है, किंतु इसमें से पीने योग्य मीठा जल बहुत थोड़ा है। बढ़ती जनसंख्या, अनियंत्रित शहरीकरण और उद्योगों के कारण भूजल का स्तर निरंतर नीचे जा रहा है। अनेक नगरों में गर्मियों के आते ही पानी के लिए लंबी कतारें लग जाती हैं। हमारे पूर्वज कुएँ, बावड़ियाँ और तालाब बनाकर वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे; आज हम उस परंपरा को भूलते जा रहे हैं। यदि हर घर की छत से बहने वाले वर्षा-जल को एकत्र कर भूमि में उतारा जाए, तो भूजल फिर से भर सकता है। जल संरक्षण केवल सरकार का दायित्व नहीं है; यह प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है। नल खुला न छोड़ना, टपकती टोंटियों की मरम्मत कराना और पानी का दोबारा उपयोग करना — ये छोटे-छोटे उपाय मिलकर बड़ा परिवर्तन ला सकते हैं। 'निरंतर' शब्द का पर्यायवाची है —
  1. Aलगातार
  2. Bकभी-कभी
  3. Cतुरंत
  4. Dअचानक
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) लगातार

Explanation

निरंतर = बिना रुके, लगातार।

Q79
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। जल ही जीवन है — यह कथन जितना पुराना है, उतना ही सत्य भी। पृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है, किंतु इसमें से पीने योग्य मीठा जल बहुत थोड़ा है। बढ़ती जनसंख्या, अनियंत्रित शहरीकरण और उद्योगों के कारण भूजल का स्तर निरंतर नीचे जा रहा है। अनेक नगरों में गर्मियों के आते ही पानी के लिए लंबी कतारें लग जाती हैं। हमारे पूर्वज कुएँ, बावड़ियाँ और तालाब बनाकर वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे; आज हम उस परंपरा को भूलते जा रहे हैं। यदि हर घर की छत से बहने वाले वर्षा-जल को एकत्र कर भूमि में उतारा जाए, तो भूजल फिर से भर सकता है। जल संरक्षण केवल सरकार का दायित्व नहीं है; यह प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है। नल खुला न छोड़ना, टपकती टोंटियों की मरम्मत कराना और पानी का दोबारा उपयोग करना — ये छोटे-छोटे उपाय मिलकर बड़ा परिवर्तन ला सकते हैं। 'कर्तव्य' शब्द का विलोम है —
  1. Aधर्म
  2. Bदायित्व
  3. Cफ़र्ज़
  4. Dअधिकार
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Correct answer: (D) अधिकार

Explanation

कर्तव्य ↔ अधिकार। दायित्व और फ़र्ज़ इसके पर्यायवाची हैं।

Q80
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। जल ही जीवन है — यह कथन जितना पुराना है, उतना ही सत्य भी। पृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है, किंतु इसमें से पीने योग्य मीठा जल बहुत थोड़ा है। बढ़ती जनसंख्या, अनियंत्रित शहरीकरण और उद्योगों के कारण भूजल का स्तर निरंतर नीचे जा रहा है। अनेक नगरों में गर्मियों के आते ही पानी के लिए लंबी कतारें लग जाती हैं। हमारे पूर्वज कुएँ, बावड़ियाँ और तालाब बनाकर वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे; आज हम उस परंपरा को भूलते जा रहे हैं। यदि हर घर की छत से बहने वाले वर्षा-जल को एकत्र कर भूमि में उतारा जाए, तो भूजल फिर से भर सकता है। जल संरक्षण केवल सरकार का दायित्व नहीं है; यह प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है। नल खुला न छोड़ना, टपकती टोंटियों की मरम्मत कराना और पानी का दोबारा उपयोग करना — ये छोटे-छोटे उपाय मिलकर बड़ा परिवर्तन ला सकते हैं। गद्यांश के अनुसार असत्य कथन है —
  1. Aपूर्वज वर्षा-जल को सहेजते थे।
  2. Bजल संरक्षण प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य है।
  3. Cपीने योग्य मीठा जल प्रचुर मात्रा में है।
  4. Dपृथ्वी का लगभग तीन-चौथाई भाग जल से ढका है।
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) पीने योग्य मीठा जल प्रचुर मात्रा में है।

Explanation

गद्यांश के अनुसार पीने योग्य मीठा जल 'बहुत थोड़ा' है।

English Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q81
Neither the teacher nor the students ______ aware of the change in the timetable.
  1. Ahas been
  2. Bis
  3. Cwere
  4. Dwas
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Correct answer: (C) were

Explanation

Neither…nor mein verb paas wale subject (students, plural) ke hisaab se lagta hai → were.

Q82
She is ______ honest woman.
  1. Aan
  2. Bno article
  3. Ca
  4. Dthe
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Correct answer: (A) an

Explanation

'Honest' mein h silent hai, awaaz vowel (o) se shuru hoti hai → an.

Q83
You will submit the form today, ______?
  1. Adon't you
  2. Bwill you
  3. Cshall you
  4. Dwon't you
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Correct answer: (D) won't you

Explanation

Positive statement (will) → negative tag: won't you. PGT 2024 mein question tags ke kai sawaal aaye.

Q84
______ the heavy rain, the match continued.
  1. AAlthough
  2. BBecause
  3. CEven though
  4. DIn spite of
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Correct answer: (D) In spite of

Explanation

'the heavy rain' noun phrase hai. Noun ke saath 'In spite of'; Even though/Although ke baad poora clause aata hai.

Q85
He has been working in this company ______ 2019.
  1. Afor
  2. Bsince
  3. Cby
  4. Dfrom
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Correct answer: (B) since

Explanation

Point of time (2019) ke saath present perfect continuous mein 'since'. Period (5 years) ke saath 'for'.

Q86
Select the meaning of the idiom: To break the ice
  1. ATo make something cold
  2. BTo create a problem
  3. CTo overcome initial shyness or reserve
  4. DTo end a relationship
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Correct answer: (C) To overcome initial shyness or reserve

Explanation

Break the ice = jhijhak todna. Ye idiom PYQs mein 3 baar aa chuka hai.

Q87
Select the meaning of the idiom: A blessing in disguise
  1. AA religious ceremony
  2. BSomething good that is not recognised at first
  3. CA hidden enemy
  4. DA costly gift
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Correct answer: (B) Something good that is not recognised at first

Explanation

Nuksaan jaisa dikhne wala faayda. PYQs mein 3 baar aaya hai.

Q88
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph after the given first sentence. The Himalayas are often called the water tower of Asia. P: These rivers support the lives of nearly two billion people. Q: As the climate warms, the glaciers are melting faster than ever. R: Their glaciers feed some of the largest rivers on the continent. S: This threatens the long-term water security of the entire region.
  1. ARPQS
  2. BRQPS
  3. CQRPS
  4. DPRSQ
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) RPQS

Explanation

R (glaciers rivers ko paani dete hain) → P (ye rivers 2 arab logon ko) → Q (glaciers pighal rahe hain) → S (isse paani ka khatra). 'These rivers' batata hai ki P, R ke baad aayega.

Q89
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: Once he reached the station, he realised he had left his ticket at home. Q: Ravi woke up late on the day of his interview. R: He rushed out of the house without checking his bag. S: Luckily, he was able to show the e-ticket on his phone.
  1. AQRPS
  2. BQPRS
  3. CRQPS
  4. DPQRS
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) QRPS

Explanation

Kahani ka time order: late utha (Q) → jaldi mein nikla (R) → station pe ticket yaad aaya (P) → e-ticket dikhaya (S).

Q90
Select the correctly spelt word.
  1. AConcensus
  2. BConsencus
  3. CConsensus
  4. DConscensus
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Consensus

Explanation

con-SEN-sus. PYQs mein 3 baar aaya hai.

Q91
One who hates mankind
  1. APhilanthropist
  2. BMisogynist
  3. CMisanthrope
  4. DAnthropologist
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Correct answer: (C) Misanthrope

Explanation

mis = nafrat, anthrop = insaan. Philanthropist ulta hai, Misogynist = auraton se nafrat.

Q92
Select the synonym of: UNTENABLE
  1. ASustainable
  2. BReasonable
  3. CIllogical
  4. DDurable
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Illogical

Explanation

Untenable = jiska bachav na ho sake. PYQs mein 2 baar 'Illogical' answer aaya hai.

Q93
Select the antonym of: EPHEMERAL
  1. AFleeting
  2. BMomentary
  3. CTransitory
  4. DEnduring
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Correct answer: (D) Enduring

Explanation

Ephemeral = kshanik. Baaki teen options iske synonym hain, isliye odd-one-out Enduring.

Q94
Improve the bracketed part: No sooner [had he left the room when] the phone rang.
  1. Ahad he left the room than
  2. Bdid he leave the room when
  3. Che had left the room than
  4. DNo improvement
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) had he left the room than

Explanation

Fixed pair: No sooner had… than.

Q95
Find the part with an error: One of my friends (A) / have gone to Delhi (B) / for higher studies. (C) / No error (D)
  1. AOne of my friends (A)
  2. Bhave gone to Delhi (B)
  3. Cfor higher studies. (C)
  4. DNo error
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) have gone to Delhi (B)

Explanation

'One of + plural noun' ke saath singular verb → has gone.

Q96
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Smartphones in Village Classrooms In many Indian villages, the arrival of affordable smartphones has quietly changed the way children learn. A decade ago, a student who missed a lesson had little chance of catching up; today, recorded lectures and educational apps allow her to revisit a topic as many times as she needs. Teachers, too, have begun to use short videos to explain difficult ideas, making abstract concepts in science and mathematics easier to grasp. However, the change is not without problems. Poor internet connectivity, the high cost of data and the lack of devices in poorer households mean that many children are still left behind. Experts also warn that screens cannot replace the guidance of a good teacher, who notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson accordingly. The real promise of technology, they argue, lies not in replacing classrooms but in strengthening them. If governments invest in reliable connectivity and train teachers to use digital tools wisely, the gap between rural and urban education could narrow significantly in the coming years. What is the central idea of the passage?
  1. ASmartphones have made teachers unnecessary in villages
  2. BVillages in India do not have enough schools
  3. CTechnology can strengthen rural education if it is used wisely
  4. DMobile data in India is too expensive to use
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Technology can strengthen rural education if it is used wisely

Explanation

Passage ka aakhri hissa kehta hai ki technology classrooms ko replace nahi, strengthen karti hai. Yahi central idea hai.

Q97
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Smartphones in Village Classrooms In many Indian villages, the arrival of affordable smartphones has quietly changed the way children learn. A decade ago, a student who missed a lesson had little chance of catching up; today, recorded lectures and educational apps allow her to revisit a topic as many times as she needs. Teachers, too, have begun to use short videos to explain difficult ideas, making abstract concepts in science and mathematics easier to grasp. However, the change is not without problems. Poor internet connectivity, the high cost of data and the lack of devices in poorer households mean that many children are still left behind. Experts also warn that screens cannot replace the guidance of a good teacher, who notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson accordingly. The real promise of technology, they argue, lies not in replacing classrooms but in strengthening them. If governments invest in reliable connectivity and train teachers to use digital tools wisely, the gap between rural and urban education could narrow significantly in the coming years. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem in the passage?
  1. AHigh cost of data
  2. BShortage of textbooks
  3. CLack of devices in poorer homes
  4. DPoor internet connectivity
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Shortage of textbooks

Explanation

Teen problems passage mein likhi hain: connectivity, data cost, devices. Textbooks ka zikr nahi hai.

Q98
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Smartphones in Village Classrooms In many Indian villages, the arrival of affordable smartphones has quietly changed the way children learn. A decade ago, a student who missed a lesson had little chance of catching up; today, recorded lectures and educational apps allow her to revisit a topic as many times as she needs. Teachers, too, have begun to use short videos to explain difficult ideas, making abstract concepts in science and mathematics easier to grasp. However, the change is not without problems. Poor internet connectivity, the high cost of data and the lack of devices in poorer households mean that many children are still left behind. Experts also warn that screens cannot replace the guidance of a good teacher, who notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson accordingly. The real promise of technology, they argue, lies not in replacing classrooms but in strengthening them. If governments invest in reliable connectivity and train teachers to use digital tools wisely, the gap between rural and urban education could narrow significantly in the coming years. The word 'grasp' as used in the passage means:
  1. Aunderstand
  2. Bcatch
  3. Csnatch
  4. Dhold tightly
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Correct answer: (A) understand

Explanation

'Easier to grasp' = samajhne mein aasaan. Yahan grasp ka matlab understand hai, pakadna nahi.

Q99
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Smartphones in Village Classrooms In many Indian villages, the arrival of affordable smartphones has quietly changed the way children learn. A decade ago, a student who missed a lesson had little chance of catching up; today, recorded lectures and educational apps allow her to revisit a topic as many times as she needs. Teachers, too, have begun to use short videos to explain difficult ideas, making abstract concepts in science and mathematics easier to grasp. However, the change is not without problems. Poor internet connectivity, the high cost of data and the lack of devices in poorer households mean that many children are still left behind. Experts also warn that screens cannot replace the guidance of a good teacher, who notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson accordingly. The real promise of technology, they argue, lies not in replacing classrooms but in strengthening them. If governments invest in reliable connectivity and train teachers to use digital tools wisely, the gap between rural and urban education could narrow significantly in the coming years. Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'narrow' as used in the passage.
  1. Ashrink
  2. Breduce
  3. Cclose
  4. Dwiden
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Correct answer: (D) widen

Explanation

'The gap could narrow' = fark kam hoga. Ulta = widen (badhna).

Q100
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. Smartphones in Village Classrooms In many Indian villages, the arrival of affordable smartphones has quietly changed the way children learn. A decade ago, a student who missed a lesson had little chance of catching up; today, recorded lectures and educational apps allow her to revisit a topic as many times as she needs. Teachers, too, have begun to use short videos to explain difficult ideas, making abstract concepts in science and mathematics easier to grasp. However, the change is not without problems. Poor internet connectivity, the high cost of data and the lack of devices in poorer households mean that many children are still left behind. Experts also warn that screens cannot replace the guidance of a good teacher, who notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson accordingly. The real promise of technology, they argue, lies not in replacing classrooms but in strengthening them. If governments invest in reliable connectivity and train teachers to use digital tools wisely, the gap between rural and urban education could narrow significantly in the coming years. According to the passage, what can a good teacher do that a screen cannot?
  1. AExplain ideas with short videos
  2. BRepeat a lecture many times
  3. CReduce the cost of data
  4. DNotice when a child is confused and adjust the lesson
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Correct answer: (D) Notice when a child is confused and adjust the lesson

Explanation

Passage mein seedha likha hai: teacher notices when a child is confused and adjusts the lesson.

Computer Science 90 questions

Q101
What is the 2's complement of the 8-bit binary number 01011000?
  1. A10100111
  2. B10101001
  3. C10101000
  4. D01011000
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Correct answer: (C) 10101000

Explanation

Invert (10100111) and add 1 = 10101000.

Q102
(3A7)₁₆ is equal to which octal number?
  1. A(1657)₈
  2. B(1647)₈
  3. C(1646)₈
  4. D(1747)₈
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Correct answer: (B) (1647)₈

Explanation

3A7 = 0011 1010 0111; regroup in 3s: 001 110 100 111 = 1647.

Q103
A memory unit is of size 256K × 16. How many address lines and data lines does it need?
  1. A18 address lines, 16 data lines
  2. B18 address lines, 8 data lines
  3. C8 address lines, 16 data lines
  4. D16 address lines, 18 data lines
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Correct answer: (A) 18 address lines, 16 data lines

Explanation

256K = 2^18, so 18 address lines; word size 16 bits, so 16 data lines.

Q104
Cache hit ratio is 0.95, cache access time 5 ns and main memory access time 100 ns. Using hierarchical (look-through) access, the average access time is:
  1. A9.75 ns
  2. B5.25 ns
  3. C14.75 ns
  4. D10 ns
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Correct answer: (D) 10 ns

Explanation

0.95 × 5 + 0.05 × (5 + 100) = 4.75 + 5.25 = 10 ns.

Q105
Which register holds the address of the next instruction to be executed?
  1. AInstruction Register
  2. BAccumulator
  3. CMemory Data Register
  4. DProgram Counter
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Correct answer: (D) Program Counter

Explanation

PC holds the address of the next instruction; IR holds the current one.

Q106
Which type of ROM is erased by exposing it to ultraviolet light?
  1. AMask ROM
  2. BPROM
  3. CEPROM
  4. DEEPROM
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Correct answer: (C) EPROM

Explanation

EPROM is erased by UV light (all bits become 1); EEPROM is erased electrically.

Q107
The Gray code of binary 1101 is:
  1. A1011
  2. B0111
  3. C1001
  4. D1110
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Correct answer: (A) 1011

Explanation

MSB stays 1; then XOR adjacent bits: 1^1=0, 1^0=1, 0^1=1 → 1011.

Q108
In a 5-stage pipeline with no hazards, how many clock cycles are needed to execute 20 instructions?
  1. A25
  2. B100
  3. C20
  4. D24
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Correct answer: (D) 24

Explanation

k + (n − 1) = 5 + 19 = 24 cycles.

Q109
Which of the following is a non-volatile memory?
  1. ADRAM
  2. BCache memory
  3. CSRAM
  4. DFlash memory
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Correct answer: (D) Flash memory

Explanation

Flash retains data without power; SRAM, DRAM and cache are volatile.

Q110
The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates required to implement an XOR gate is:
  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C2
  4. D5
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Correct answer: (B) 4

Explanation

XOR needs 4 NAND gates (5 NOR gates).

Q111
The Boolean expression A + A'B simplifies to:
  1. AA
  2. BB
  3. CA + B
  4. DAB
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Correct answer: (C) A + B

Explanation

Redundancy law: A + A'B = A + B.

Q112
How many select lines does a 16 : 1 multiplexer have?
  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C16
  4. D8
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Correct answer: (B) 4

Explanation

2^m = 16 → m = 4.

Q113
In a JK flip-flop, when J = 1 and K = 1 and a clock pulse is applied, the output:
  1. AToggles
  2. BRemains unchanged
  3. CResets to 0
  4. DSets to 1
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Correct answer: (A) Toggles

Explanation

J = K = 1 is the toggle condition.

Q114
The minimum number of flip-flops needed to build a MOD-12 counter is:
  1. A4
  2. B12
  3. C3
  4. D6
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Correct answer: (A) 4

Explanation

2^3 = 8 < 12 ≤ 16 = 2^4, so 4 flip-flops.

Q115
F(A, B, C) = Σm(0, 1, 2, 3) simplifies to:
  1. AB'
  2. BA
  3. CA'
  4. DC'
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Correct answer: (C) A'

Explanation

Minterms 0–3 all have A = 0, so F = A'.

Q116
Using FIFO page replacement with 3 frames (initially empty), how many page faults occur for the reference string 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5?
  1. A10
  2. B8
  3. C9
  4. D7
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Correct answer: (C) 9

Explanation

FIFO with 3 frames gives 9 faults (with 4 frames it gives 10 – Belady's anomaly).

Q117
Four processes arrive at time 0 with burst times P1 = 6, P2 = 8, P3 = 7, P4 = 3. What is the average waiting time under non-preemptive SJF?
  1. A10.25
  2. B6
  3. C7
  4. D8
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Correct answer: (C) 7

Explanation

Order P4, P1, P3, P2 → waits 0, 3, 9, 16 → 28/4 = 7.

Q118
Which of the following is NOT one of the necessary conditions for deadlock?
  1. AHold and wait
  2. BCircular wait
  3. CMutual exclusion
  4. DPreemption
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Correct answer: (D) Preemption

Explanation

The condition is 'No preemption'; preemption itself prevents deadlock.

Q119
Belady's anomaly is observed in which page replacement algorithm?
  1. ALRU
  2. BFIFO
  3. CLFU
  4. DOptimal
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Correct answer: (B) FIFO

Explanation

Only FIFO can show more faults with more frames.

Q120
How many times will "Hi" be printed by the following program? fork(); fork(); fork(); printf("Hi\n");
  1. A4
  2. B3
  3. C8
  4. D6
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Correct answer: (C) 8

Explanation

n fork() calls create 2^n processes; 2^3 = 8.

Q121
Thrashing in an operating system occurs when:
  1. AProcesses spend more time paging than executing
  2. BCPU utilisation is maximum
  3. CThere is no page fault
  4. DOnly one process is in memory
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Correct answer: (A) Processes spend more time paging than executing

Explanation

Very high page-fault activity keeps the system busy swapping pages.

Q122
Which scheduler controls the degree of multiprogramming?
  1. AMedium-term scheduler
  2. BLong-term scheduler
  3. CShort-term scheduler
  4. DDispatcher
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Correct answer: (B) Long-term scheduler

Explanation

The long-term (job) scheduler decides how many processes enter memory.

Q123
A system uses 32-bit logical addresses and a page size of 4 KB. How many pages can the logical address space have?
  1. A2^32
  2. B2^20
  3. C2^12
  4. D2^10
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Correct answer: (B) 2^20

Explanation

2^32 / 2^12 = 2^20 pages.

Q124
In a flowchart, the diamond-shaped symbol represents:
  1. ADecision
  2. BInput/Output
  3. CProcess
  4. DStart/End
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Correct answer: (A) Decision

Explanation

Diamond = decision; rectangle = process; parallelogram = I/O; oval = terminal.

Q125
Which translator converts the entire high-level program into machine code at once before execution?
  1. AAssembler
  2. BCompiler
  3. CLoader
  4. DInterpreter
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Correct answer: (B) Compiler

Explanation

A compiler translates the whole program; an interpreter works line by line.

Q126
The property of an algorithm that it must terminate after a finite number of steps is called:
  1. AFiniteness
  2. BEffectiveness
  3. CGenerality
  4. DDefiniteness
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Correct answer: (A) Finiteness

Explanation

Finiteness = must stop after finite steps.

Q127
What is the output? int a = 5, b; b = a++ * 2; printf("%d %d", a, b);
  1. A5 10
  2. B6 10
  3. C6 12
  4. D5 12
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Correct answer: (B) 6 10

Explanation

a++ uses 5 then increments: b = 10, a = 6.

Q128
What is the output? int i; for (i = 0; i < 10; i += 3); printf("%d", i);
  1. A10
  2. B9
  3. C3
  4. D12
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Correct answer: (D) 12

Explanation

The semicolon ends the loop; i goes 0, 3, 6, 9, 12 and the loop exits at 12.

Q129
What is the output? int n = 2; switch (n) { case 1: printf("A"); case 2: printf("B"); case 3: printf("C"); break; default: printf("D"); }
  1. AB
  2. BBCD
  3. CABC
  4. DBC
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Correct answer: (D) BC

Explanation

Execution starts at case 2 and falls through to case 3 until break.

Q130
What is the output? char s[] = "DSSSB"; printf("%d", (int)sizeof(s));
  1. A6
  2. B5
  3. C7
  4. D4
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Correct answer: (A) 6

Explanation

5 characters + 1 null terminator = 6 bytes.

Q131
What is the output? int a[] = {10, 20, 30, 40}; int *p = a; p += 2; printf("%d", *p);
  1. A30
  2. B20
  3. C40
  4. D12
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Correct answer: (A) 30

Explanation

p moves two elements ahead to a[2] = 30.

Q132
What is the output? int f(int n) { if (n <= 1) return 1; return n * f(n - 1); } printf("%d", f(5));
  1. A15
  2. B120
  3. C720
  4. D24
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Correct answer: (B) 120

Explanation

f computes factorial: 5! = 120.

Q133
In Java, which keyword is used by a class to inherit another class?
  1. Asuper
  2. Bimplements
  3. Cinherits
  4. Dextends
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Correct answer: (D) extends

Explanation

A class extends a class and implements an interface.

Q134
Method overloading in Java is an example of:
  1. AEncapsulation
  2. BCompile-time polymorphism
  3. CAbstraction
  4. DRun-time polymorphism
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Correct answer: (B) Compile-time polymorphism

Explanation

Overloading is resolved at compile time; overriding at run time.

Q135
In C++, what is the default access specifier for members of a class?
  1. Aprivate
  2. Bfriend
  3. Cprotected
  4. Dpublic
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Correct answer: (A) private

Explanation

class members are private by default; struct members are public.

Q136
What is the output of the Java code? String s1 = "abc"; String s2 = new String("abc"); System.out.println(s1 == s2); System.out.println(s1.equals(s2));
  1. Atrue then true
  2. Bfalse then true
  3. Ctrue then false
  4. Dfalse then false
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Correct answer: (B) false then true

Explanation

== compares references (different objects); equals() compares content.

Q137
What is the output? void f() { static int c = 0; c++; printf("%d ", c); } /* f() is called three times */
  1. A0 1 2
  2. B3 3 3
  3. C1 1 1
  4. D1 2 3
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Correct answer: (D) 1 2 3

Explanation

A static local keeps its value between calls.

Q138
In Java, which of the following cannot be instantiated directly?
  1. AWrapper class
  2. BAbstract class
  3. CFinal class
  4. DConcrete subclass
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Correct answer: (B) Abstract class

Explanation

Objects of an abstract class cannot be created with new.

Q139
Which statement about constructors in C++ is TRUE?
  1. AThey must return an int
  2. BThey can be declared virtual
  3. CThey are called only explicitly
  4. DThey have the same name as the class and no return type
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Correct answer: (D) They have the same name as the class and no return type

Explanation

Constructors share the class name, have no return type and run automatically.

Q140
What is printed by the Java statement? System.out.println(7 / 2 + 'A');
  1. ACompile error
  2. B68
  3. C3.5A
  4. D3A
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Correct answer: (B) 68

Explanation

7 / 2 = 3 (int) and 'A' = 65; 3 + 65 = 68.

Q141
What is the output? printf("%d", 5 > 3 && 2 > 4 || 1);
  1. A1
  2. B0
  3. CCompile error
  4. D5
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Correct answer: (A) 1

Explanation

(1 && 0) || 1 = 0 || 1 = 1.

Q142
What is the output of print(len([1, [2, 3], 4]))?
  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C3
  4. DError
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Correct answer: (C) 3

Explanation

The nested list counts as one element: 3 elements.

Q143
What is the output of print(10 // 3, 10 % 3)?
  1. A3 1
  2. B3.33 1
  3. C3 0
  4. D1 3
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Correct answer: (A) 3 1

Explanation

// is floor division (3) and % is remainder (1).

Q144
In pandas, what does df.shape return for a DataFrame df?
  1. AColumn names
  2. BA tuple (rows, columns)
  3. CData types of columns
  4. DNumber of rows only
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Correct answer: (B) A tuple (rows, columns)

Explanation

shape gives (number of rows, number of columns).

Q145
The postfix form of the infix expression A + B * C − D is:
  1. AAB+C*D−
  2. BABC*+D−
  3. CAB*C+D−
  4. DABC+*D−
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Correct answer: (B) ABC*+D−

Explanation

B*C first, then A + (B*C), then − D: ABC*+D−.

Q146
The worst-case time complexity of binary search on n sorted elements is:
  1. AO(n log n)
  2. BO(n)
  3. CO(1)
  4. DO(log n)
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Correct answer: (D) O(log n)

Explanation

Each step halves the search space.

Q147
The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height 3 (root at height 0) is:
  1. A7
  2. B16
  3. C15
  4. D8
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Correct answer: (C) 15

Explanation

2^(h+1) − 1 = 2^4 − 1 = 15.

Q148
Inorder traversal of a Binary Search Tree gives the keys in:
  1. ADescending order
  2. BLevel order
  3. CAscending (sorted) order
  4. DRandom order
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Correct answer: (C) Ascending (sorted) order

Explanation

Left, root, right visits BST keys in sorted order.

Q149
Elements 1, 2, 3 are pushed onto an empty stack. Then: pop, push 4, pop, pop. What is the sequence of popped elements?
  1. A3, 4, 1
  2. B1, 4, 2
  3. C3, 4, 2
  4. D3, 2, 1
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Correct answer: (C) 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Pop 3; push 4; pop 4; pop 2.

Q150
Which sorting algorithm has a worst-case time complexity of O(n log n)?
  1. AInsertion sort
  2. BMerge sort
  3. CQuick sort
  4. DBubble sort
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Correct answer: (B) Merge sort

Explanation

Merge sort is O(n log n) in all cases; quick sort is O(n^2) in the worst case.

Q151
A queue follows which principle?
  1. AFILO
  2. BLIFO
  3. CFIFO
  4. DRandom access
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Correct answer: (C) FIFO

Explanation

First In First Out.

Q152
Space required to store a graph with V vertices as an adjacency matrix is:
  1. AO(V^2)
  2. BO(E)
  3. CO(V + E)
  4. DO(V)
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Correct answer: (A) O(V^2)

Explanation

A V × V matrix is needed.

Q153
A minimal super key is called a:
  1. AAlternate key
  2. BForeign key
  3. CComposite key
  4. DCandidate key
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Correct answer: (D) Candidate key

Explanation

A candidate key is a super key with no redundant attribute.

Q154
Which normal form removes partial dependency?
  1. A1NF
  2. B2NF
  3. CBCNF
  4. D3NF
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Correct answer: (B) 2NF

Explanation

2NF removes partial dependency of non-key attributes on part of a key.

Q155
Which SQL command removes a table along with its structure?
  1. AREMOVE
  2. BDROP
  3. CDELETE
  4. DTRUNCATE
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Correct answer: (B) DROP

Explanation

DROP deletes data and structure; TRUNCATE keeps the structure.

Q156
Which of the following is a DDL command?
  1. AUPDATE
  2. BINSERT
  3. CALTER
  4. DSELECT
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) ALTER

Explanation

DDL: CREATE, ALTER, DROP, TRUNCATE.

Q157
Relation R(A, B, C) has FDs A → B and B → C. The candidate key of R is:
  1. AC
  2. BA
  3. CB
  4. DBC
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) A

Explanation

A+ = {A, B, C}, so A is the key.

Q158
Which SQL clause is used to filter groups formed by GROUP BY?
  1. AWHERE
  2. BHAVING
  3. CORDER BY
  4. DDISTINCT
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) HAVING

Explanation

WHERE filters rows; HAVING filters groups.

Q159
In ACID properties, 'A' stands for:
  1. AAuthorization
  2. BAvailability
  3. CAccuracy
  4. DAtomicity
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Correct answer: (D) Atomicity

Explanation

Atomicity: a transaction runs completely or not at all.

Q160
In an ER diagram, a weak entity set is represented by:
  1. ASingle rectangle
  2. BEllipse
  3. CDiamond
  4. DDouble rectangle
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Correct answer: (D) Double rectangle

Explanation

Weak entity = double rectangle; its identifying relationship = double diamond.

Q161
Routing is performed at which layer of the OSI model?
  1. ASession layer
  2. BTransport layer
  3. CData link layer
  4. DNetwork layer
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Network layer

Explanation

Layer 3 (network) decides paths using logical addresses.

Q162
How many usable host addresses are available in a /26 subnet?
  1. A64
  2. B126
  3. C30
  4. D62
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 62

Explanation

2^(32−26) − 2 = 64 − 2 = 62.

Q163
HTTPS uses which default port?
  1. A443
  2. B80
  3. C21
  4. D25
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 443

Explanation

HTTP = 80, HTTPS = 443.

Q164
Which protocol finds the MAC address corresponding to an IP address?
  1. AARP
  2. BDHCP
  3. CDNS
  4. DRARP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) ARP

Explanation

ARP maps IP to MAC; RARP does the reverse.

Q165
The IP address 172.16.5.4 belongs to which class?
  1. AClass A
  2. BClass B
  3. CClass C
  4. DClass D
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Class B

Explanation

First octet 128–191 is Class B.

Q166
Which transport protocol is connection-oriented and reliable?
  1. AICMP
  2. BUDP
  3. CTCP
  4. DIP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) TCP

Explanation

TCP uses a handshake, acknowledgements and retransmission.

Q167
A switch operates at which OSI layer?
  1. AApplication layer
  2. BPhysical layer
  3. CData link layer
  4. DNetwork layer
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Correct answer: (C) Data link layer

Explanation

A switch forwards frames using MAC addresses.

Q168
Which of the following is an asymmetric-key algorithm?
  1. A3DES
  2. BAES
  3. CDES
  4. DRSA
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) RSA

Explanation

RSA uses a public/private key pair; the others are symmetric.

Q169
In which topology are all devices connected to a central hub or switch?
  1. AMesh
  2. BRing
  3. CStar
  4. DBus
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Star

Explanation

Star topology uses a central device.

Q170
An IPv6 address is how many bits long?
  1. A128
  2. B64
  3. C256
  4. D32
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 128

Explanation

IPv4 = 32 bits, IPv6 = 128 bits.

Q171
DNS uses which port number?
  1. A53
  2. B110
  3. C67
  4. D25
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 53

Explanation

DNS = 53; SMTP = 25; POP3 = 110; DHCP = 67/68.

Q172
Which HTML tag creates the largest heading?
  1. A<head>
  2. B<h1>
  3. C<h6>
  4. D<header>
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) <h1>

Explanation

h1 is the largest, h6 the smallest.

Q173
Which CSS property changes the text colour?
  1. Afont-color
  2. Bforeground
  3. Ccolor
  4. Dtext-color
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) color

Explanation

The CSS property is simply color.

Q174
In JavaScript, typeof null returns:
  1. A"number"
  2. B"undefined"
  3. C"null"
  4. D"object"
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Correct answer: (D) "object"

Explanation

A long-standing JavaScript quirk: typeof null is "object".

Q175
Which attribute value opens a link in a new tab?
  1. Atarget="_self"
  2. Bhref="_new"
  3. Crel="new"
  4. Dtarget="_blank"
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) target="_blank"

Explanation

target="_blank" opens a new browsing context.

Q176
Which statement about XML is TRUE?
  1. ATags are user-defined
  2. BIt is not case-sensitive
  3. CTags are predefined
  4. DIt is used only for display
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Tags are user-defined

Explanation

XML lets you define your own tags; it is case-sensitive and stores data.

Q177
In the CSS box model, the correct order from inside to outside is:
  1. APadding, content, border, margin
  2. BContent, margin, border, padding
  3. CContent, padding, border, margin
  4. DMargin, border, padding, content
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Correct answer: (C) Content, padding, border, margin

Explanation

Content is wrapped by padding, then border, then margin.

Q178
Which HTTP method sends form data in the request body?
  1. AGET
  2. BHEAD
  3. CTRACE
  4. DPOST
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Correct answer: (D) POST

Explanation

GET appends data to the URL; POST sends it in the body.

Q179
Which SDLC model explicitly includes risk analysis in every cycle?
  1. AV-model
  2. BRAD model
  3. CSpiral model
  4. DWaterfall model
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Correct answer: (C) Spiral model

Explanation

Boehm's spiral model is risk-driven.

Q180
Boundary value analysis is a technique of:
  1. ABlack-box testing
  2. BWhite-box testing
  3. CUnit integration
  4. DStatic analysis
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Correct answer: (A) Black-box testing

Explanation

BVA and equivalence partitioning are black-box techniques.

Q181
Which type of cohesion is considered the best?
  1. ATemporal cohesion
  2. BLogical cohesion
  3. CFunctional cohesion
  4. DCoincidental cohesion
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Correct answer: (C) Functional cohesion

Explanation

Functional is best; coincidental is worst.

Q182
Which type of coupling is considered the best (lowest)?
  1. AData coupling
  2. BControl coupling
  3. CCommon coupling
  4. DContent coupling
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Correct answer: (A) Data coupling

Explanation

Data coupling is the loosest; content coupling is the worst.

Q183
The COCOMO model is mainly used to estimate:
  1. AEffort and cost
  2. BReliability
  3. CTesting coverage
  4. DUser satisfaction
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Correct answer: (A) Effort and cost

Explanation

COCOMO estimates effort, cost and schedule from size (KLOC).

Q184
The highest maturity level in the CMM is:
  1. AManaged
  2. BOptimizing
  3. CRepeatable
  4. DDefined
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Correct answer: (B) Optimizing

Explanation

Levels: Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimizing.

Q185
Which Agile framework organises work into fixed-length sprints?
  1. AWaterfall
  2. BScrum
  3. CSpiral
  4. DCOCOMO
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Correct answer: (B) Scrum

Explanation

Scrum uses sprints, a product backlog and daily stand-ups.

Q186
Bresenham's line drawing algorithm is efficient mainly because it uses:
  1. AFloating-point multiplication
  2. BOnly integer arithmetic
  3. CTrigonometric functions
  4. DRandom sampling
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Correct answer: (B) Only integer arithmetic

Explanation

It avoids floating-point calculations.

Q187
The RGB colour model is a:
  1. ASubtractive model
  2. BPrinting model
  3. CAdditive model
  4. DGrey-scale model
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Correct answer: (C) Additive model

Explanation

RGB adds light (used for screens); CMYK is subtractive (printing).

Q188
What frame-buffer size is needed for a 1024 × 768 display with 24-bit colour?
  1. A768 KB
  2. B2.25 MB
  3. C3 MB
  4. D1.5 MB
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Correct answer: (B) 2.25 MB

Explanation

1024 × 768 × 3 bytes = 2,359,296 bytes = 2.25 MB.

Q189
Which type of machine learning trains a model on labelled data?
  1. AClustering
  2. BUnsupervised learning
  3. CReinforcement learning
  4. DSupervised learning
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Correct answer: (D) Supervised learning

Explanation

Supervised learning uses input–output (labelled) pairs.

Q190
Under the IT Act 2000, identity theft is punishable under which section?
  1. ASection 43
  2. BSection 67
  3. CSection 66C
  4. DSection 72
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Correct answer: (C) Section 66C

Explanation

66C – identity theft; 66D – cheating by personation; 67 – obscene material.

Teaching Methodology 10 questions

Q191
NEP 2020 replaces the 10+2 school structure with:
  1. A5+3+3+4
  2. B4+4+4+3
  3. C6+3+3+3
  4. D5+4+3+3
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Correct answer: (A) 5+3+3+4

Explanation

Foundational, Preparatory, Middle and Secondary stages.

Q192
The highest level in Bloom's revised taxonomy (cognitive domain) is:
  1. AApplying
  2. BEvaluating
  3. CCreating
  4. DAnalysing
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Correct answer: (C) Creating

Explanation

Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyse, Evaluate, Create.

Q193
Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development refers to:
  1. ALearning through rewards only
  2. BThe gap between what a learner can do alone and with guidance
  3. CThe age at which formal thinking begins
  4. DA child's fixed intelligence level
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Correct answer: (B) The gap between what a learner can do alone and with guidance

Explanation

ZPD is the range of tasks possible with a more knowledgeable other's help.

Q194
Formative assessment is primarily used to:
  1. ASelect candidates for jobs
  2. BCertify students at the end of a course
  3. CRank schools
  4. DImprove learning during instruction
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Correct answer: (D) Improve learning during instruction

Explanation

Formative = assessment for learning, during the process.

Q195
According to Piaget, children of about 7–11 years are in which stage?
  1. ASensorimotor
  2. BFormal operational
  3. CPre-operational
  4. DConcrete operational
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Correct answer: (D) Concrete operational

Explanation

Concrete operational stage: logical thinking about concrete objects.

Q196
In a constructivist classroom, the teacher mainly acts as a:
  1. APassive observer
  2. BFacilitator
  3. CExaminer only
  4. DDictator of knowledge
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Correct answer: (B) Facilitator

Explanation

Learners construct knowledge; the teacher facilitates.

Q197
A computer science teacher uses pair programming (driver–navigator). This mainly promotes:
  1. ARote memorisation
  2. BCompetitive isolation
  3. CTeacher-centred lecture
  4. DCollaborative learning
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Correct answer: (D) Collaborative learning

Explanation

Two learners co-create code, discussing and reviewing each other's work.

Q198
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 recognises how many types of disabilities?
  1. A14
  2. B18
  3. C21
  4. D7
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Correct answer: (C) 21

Explanation

The RPwD Act 2016 lists 21 disabilities.

Q199
The theory of Multiple Intelligences was proposed by:
  1. AHoward Gardner
  2. BLev Vygotsky
  3. CB.F. Skinner
  4. DJean Piaget
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Correct answer: (A) Howard Gardner

Explanation

Gardner proposed linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial and other intelligences.

Q200
Microteaching is best described as:
  1. ATeaching through television
  2. BTeaching only micro-level subjects
  3. CA scaled-down teaching session with a small group and short duration
  4. DA large-class lecture method
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Correct answer: (C) A scaled-down teaching session with a small group and short duration

Explanation

Microteaching practises one teaching skill at a time in short cycles with feedback.

Practise it as a real test

Reading answers is not the same as solving under time pressure. Attempt DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 1 online with the real 120-minute timer and marking scheme to get your score and all-India rank, or browse the other tests in the DSSSB TGT Computer Science Mock Test & Previous Year Papers.