UGC NET · Topic-wise previous year questions

Computer Science Previous Year Questions (page 7)

570 Computer Science questions asked in UGC NET previous year papers, each with the correct answer and explanation. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the full papers as timed online tests.

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Q301UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following statements concerning Object-Oriented databases are FALSE?
  1. AObjects in an object-oriented database contain not only data but also methods for processing the data.
  2. BObject-oriented databases store computational instructions in the same place as the data.
  3. CObject-oriented databases are more adapt at handling structured (analytical) data than relational databases.
  4. DObject-oriented databases store more types of data than relational databases and access that data faster.
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Correct answer: (C) Object-oriented databases are more adapt at handling structured (analytical) data than relational databases.

Explanation

Objects in an object-oriented database contain not only data but also methods for processing the data – correct. Object-oriented databases store computational instructions in the same place as the data – correct. Object-oriented databases are more adept at handling structured (analytical) data than relational databases – incorrect. Object-oriented databases store more types of data than relational databases and access that data faster – correct. So, option (c) is correct.

Q302UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
What is the function of the following UNIX command? wc -l <a >b &
  1. AIt runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing the result to b, as a foreground process.
  2. BIt runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing the result to b, but does it in the background.
  3. CIt counts the errors during the execution of a process, a, and puts the result in process b.
  4. DIt copies the 'l' numbers of lines of program from file, a, and stores in file b.
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Correct answer: (B) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing the result to b, but does it in the background.

Explanation

wc -l <a >b &: wc is the word count program, -l counts lines, <a takes input from a, >b writes output to b, and & runs the command in the background. So it counts the number of lines in a, writes the result to b, and does it in the background.

Q303UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following statement is not correct with reference to cron daemon in UNIX O.S.?
  1. AThe cron daemon is the standard tool for running commands on a pre-determined schedule.
  2. BIt starts when the system boots and runs as long as the system is up.
  3. CCron reads configuration files that contain list of command lines and the times at which they invoked.
  4. DCronatab for individual users are not stored.
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Correct answer: (D) Cronatab for individual users are not stored.

Explanation

The cron daemon is the standard tool for running commands on a pre-determined schedule. It starts when the system boots and runs as long as the system is up. Crontabs for individual users are stored under /var/spool/cron; there is one crontab file per user. So statement (d) is not correct.

Q304UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
In Unix, files can be protected by assigning each one a 9-bit mode called right bits. Now, consider the following two statements : I. A mode of 641 (octal) means that the owner can read and write the file, other members of the owner's group can read it, and users can execute only. II. A mode of 100 (octal) allows the owner to execute the file, but prohibits all other access. Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements?
  1. AOnly I is correct
  2. BOnly II is correct
  3. CBoth I and II are correct
  4. DBoth I and II are incorrect
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Correct answer: (C) Both I and II are correct

Explanation

In UNIX, file access permissions are given as three octal digits: the first for the owner, the second for the group, the third for others. Each digit is rwx: 7 = rwx, 6 = rw-, 5 = r-x, 4 = r--, 3 = -wx, 2 = -w-, 1 = --x, 0 = none. 641 → owner can read and write, group members can read, others can execute only. 100 → owner can execute; all other access is prohibited. So both statements are correct.

Q305UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
In UNIX, processes that have finished execution but have not yet had their status collected are known as ................
  1. ASleeping processes
  2. BStopped processes
  3. CZombie processes
  4. DOrphan processes
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Correct answer: (C) Zombie processes

Explanation

Zombie Process : The UNIX system assumes that if child process terminate, the parent collects some data about the child, As soon as this collection is made, the system releases information bits about the child process and removes its PID from the process table. The UNIX is forced to keep the child's Process ID (PID) and termination data in the process table indefinitely. Such a terminated process whose status is not collected called a zombie process.

Q306UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
In Unix operating system, when a process creates a new process using the fork () system call, which of the following state is shared between the parent process and child process?
  1. AHeap
  2. BStack
  3. CShared memory segments
  4. DBoth Heap and Stack
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Correct answer: (C) Shared memory segments

Explanation

Parent and child share only the share memory segments everything else (like stack, heap etc) is duplicated.

Q307UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following information about the UNIX file system is not correct?
  1. ASuper block contains the number of i-nodes, the number of disk blocks, and the start of the list of free disk blocks.
  2. BAn i-node contains accounting information as well as enough information to locate all the disk block that holds the file's data.
  3. CEach i-node is 256-bytes long.
  4. DAll the files and directories are stored in data blocks.
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Correct answer: (C) Each i-node is 256-bytes long.

Explanation

UNIX file system: Super block contains the number of i-nodes, the number of disk blocks, and the start of the list of free disk blocks.Correct An i-node contains accounting information as well as enough information to locate all the disk blocks that holds the file’s data.Correct All the files and directories are stored in data blocks.Correct Each i-node is 256-bytes long.Incorrect.It is 128 byte long.

Q308UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following option with reference to UNIX operating system is not correct?
  1. AINT signal is sent by the terminal driver when one types <Control> and it is a request to terminate the current operation.
  2. BTERM is a request to terminate execution completely. The receiving process will clean up its state and exit.
  3. CQUIT is similar to TERM, except that it defaults to producing a core dump if not caught.
  4. DKILL is a block able signal.
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Correct answer: (D) KILL is a block able signal.

Explanation

KILL (SIGKILL) cannot be blocked, caught or ignored, so the statement "KILL is a blockable signal" is not correct.

Q309UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
In distributed database, location transparency allows for database users, programmers and administrators to treat the data as if it is at one location. A SQL query with location transparency needs to specify :
  1. AInheritances
  2. BFragments
  3. CLocations
  4. DLocal formats
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Correct answer: (B) Fragments

Explanation

With location transparency the user does not need to know where the data is stored, but still needs to know how the data is fragmented; so a SQL query needs to specify fragments. Fragmentation transparency is the highest level, where the user does not even need to know that the database is partitioned.

Q310UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider the following ORACLE relations: R (A, B, C) = {<1, 2, 3>, <1, 2, 0>, <1, 3, 1>, <6, 2, 3>, <1, 4, 2>, <3, 1, 4>} S (B, C, D) = {<2, 3, 7>, <1, 4, 5>, <1, 2, 3>, <2, 3, 4>, <3, 1, 4>} Consider the following two SQL queries SQ₁ and SQ₂: SQ₁: SELECT R.B, AVG (S.B) FROM R, S WHERE R.A = S.C AND S.D < 7 GROUP BY R.B; SQ₂: SELECT DISTINCT S.B, MIN (S.C) FROM S GROUP BY S.B HAVING COUNT (DISTINCT S.D) > 1; If M is the number of tuples returned by SQ₁ and N is the number of tuples returned by SQ₂ then
  1. AM = 4, N = 2
  2. BM = 5, N = 3
  3. CM = 2, N = 2
  4. DM = 3, N = 3
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Correct answer: (A) M = 4, N = 2

Explanation

SQ₁: S tuples with D < 7 have S.C = 4, 2, 3, 1. Joining with R.A: S.C = 1 matches R tuples with A = 1 (R.B = 2, 2, 3, 4) and S.C = 3 matches <3, 1, 4> (R.B = 1). Grouping by R.B gives groups 1, 2, 3, 4, so M = 4. SQ₂: S.B = 1 has distinct D {5, 3} (count 2), S.B = 2 has {7, 4} (count 2), S.B = 3 has {4} (count 1). The third group is not taken because COUNT(DISTINCT S.D) > 1 fails, so N = 2.

Q311UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Semi-join strategies are techniques for query processing in distributed database system. Which of the following is a semi-join technique?
  1. AOnly the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then all of the rows are returned
  2. BAll of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned
  3. COnly the joining attributes are sent from site to another and then only the required rows are returned
  4. DAll of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned.
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Correct answer: (C) Only the joining attributes are sent from site to another and then only the required rows are returned

Explanation

Semi-join strategies are techniques for query processing in distributed database system. In which only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned.

Q312UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
A server crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is 30 days. When this happens, it takes 12 hours to reboot it, that is, the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is 12 hours. The availability of server with these reliability data values is approximately :
  1. A96.3%
  2. B97.3%
  3. C98.3%
  4. D99.3%
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Correct answer: (C) 98.3%

Explanation

If we let A represent availability, then the simplest formula for availability A = uptime/(uptime + downtime) MTBF is mean time between failures A = MTTR is mean time to repair A = MTBF/(MTBF + MTTR) So MTBF = 30 days = 30 × 24 = 720 hr A = 720/(720 + 12) = 98.3%

Q313UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider the relations R(A, B) and S(B, C) and the following four relational algebra queries over R and S: I. π_A,B (R ⋈ S) II. R ⋈ π_B(S) III. R ∩ (π_A(R) × π_B(S)) IV. π_A,R.B (R × S) where R.B refers to the column B in table R. One can determine that:
  1. AI, III and IV are the same query
  2. BII, III and IV are the same query
  3. CI, II and IV are the same query
  4. DI, II and III are the same query
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Correct answer: (D) I, II and III are the same query

Explanation

I, II and III all return exactly those tuples of R whose B value appears in S, whereas IV returns every (A, R.B) pair of R as long as S is non-empty. Example: R = {(10, 1), (20, 2)}, S = {(2, 30), (3, 40)}. (I) R ⋈ S = {(20, 2, 30)}, so π_A,B(R ⋈ S) = {(20, 2)}. (II) π_B(S) = {(2), (3)}, so R ⋈ π_B(S) = {(20, 2)}. (III) π_A(R) × π_B(S) = {(10, 2), (10, 3), (20, 2), (20, 3)}, and R ∩ that = {(20, 2)}. (IV) π_A,R.B(R × S) = {(10, 1), (20, 2)}. So I, II and III are the same query.

Q314UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following statements is TRUE? D₁ : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C) into R₁(A, B) and R₂ (A, C) is always lossless. D₂ : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C, D, E) having AD →B, C →DE, B → AE and AE →C, into R₁ (A, B, D) and R₂ (A, C, D, E) is lossless.
  1. ABoth D₁ and D₂
  2. BNeither D₁ nor D₂
  3. COnly D₁
  4. DOnly D₂
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Correct answer: (D) Only D₂

Explanation

D₂: R₁ ∩ R₂ = {A, D}, and AD → B, so AD is a key of R₁ (A, B, D); the decomposition is lossless. D₁ is not always lossless since no FDs are given: if B → A and C → A, then the common attribute A is not a key of either table, so the decomposition is lossy. Hence only D₂.

Q315UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider a discrete memoryless channel and assume that H(x) is the amount of information per symbol at the input of the channel; H(y) is the amount of information per symbol at the output of the channel; H(x|y) is the amount of uncertainty remaining on x knowing y; and I(x; y) is the information transmission. Which of the following does not define the channel capacity of a discrete memoryless channel?
  1. Amax over p(x) of I(x; y)
  2. Bmax over p(x) of [H(y) – H(y|x)]
  3. Cmax over p(x) of [H(x) – H(x|y)]
  4. Dmax over p(x) of H(x|y)
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Correct answer: (D) max over p(x) of H(x|y)

Explanation

The channel capacity of a discrete memoryless channel is defined by C = max over p(x) of I(x; y) = max over p(x) of [H(y) – H(y|x)] = max over p(x) of [H(x) – H(x|y)]. max H(x|y) does not define the channel capacity.

Q316UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Assume that we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. A page is an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line and each character requires 8 bits. Then the required bit rate of the channel is ...........
  1. A192 mbps
  2. B512 mbps
  3. C1.248 mbps
  4. D1.536 mbps
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Correct answer: (D) 1.536 mbps

Explanation

Note: strictly, 100 pages per minute gives 1,536,000 bits per minute ≈ 25.6 kbps; the keyed 1.536 Mbps corresponds to 100 pages per second, which is how the book solves it. Bits per 100 pages = 100 × 24 × 80 × 8 = 1,536,000 bits ⇒ 1.536 Mbps.

Q317UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
If link transmits 4000 frames per second and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit of this TDM is ...........
  1. A64 Kbps
  2. B32 Mbps
  3. C32 Kbps
  4. D64 Mbps
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Correct answer: (C) 32 Kbps

Explanation

Transmission rate of a circuit = frame rate × number of bits in a slot = 4000 × 8 bps = 32 Kbps. So, option (c) is correct.

Q318UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Given the following statements: (1) Frequency division multiplexing is a technique that can be applied when the bandwidth of a link is greater than combined bandwidth of signals to be transmitted. (2) Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals. (3) WDM is a digital multiplexing technique. (4) TDM is digital multiplexing technique. Which of the following is correct?
  1. A(1), (2), (3) and (4) are true
  2. B(1), (2), (3) and (4) are false
  3. C(1), (2) and (4) are false (3) is true
  4. D(1), (2) and (4) are true (3) is false
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Correct answer: (D) (1), (2) and (4) are true (3) is false

Explanation

Multiplexing is of three types: (1) Frequency division multiplexing (FDM) – analog signals. (2) Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) – analog signals (used in optical fiber). (3) Time division multiplexing (TDM) – digital signals; a single frame is made with interleaved digital signals from n devices. So (1), (2) and (4) are true and (3) is false.

Q319UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with 200 Kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 500 frames per second, then the throughput of the system is ...........
  1. A0.384
  2. B0.184
  3. C0.286
  4. D0.586
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Correct answer: (B) 0.184

Explanation

Throughput of pure ALOHA is S = G × e⁻²ᴳ, where G is the load (frames per frame-transmission time). Frame transmission time = 200 bits / 200 kbps = 1 ms. The system produces 500 frames per second = 0.5 frames per ms, so G = 1/2. S = 0.5 × e⁻¹ ≈ 0.184 (the maximum throughput of pure ALOHA). So the answer is (b).

Q320UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following sets represent five stages defined by Capability Maturity Model (CMM) in increasing order of maturity?
  1. AInitial, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, Optimized.
  2. BInitial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized.
  3. CInitial, Defined, Managed, Repeatable, Optimized.
  4. DInitial, Repeatable, Managed, Defined, Optimized.
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Correct answer: (B) Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized.

Explanation

There are five levels defined along the continuum of the model and according to the SEI. (1) Initial : The starting point for use of a new repeat process (2) Repeatable : The process is at least documented sufficiently such that repeating the same steps may be attempted. (3) Defined : The process is defined as a standard business process. (4) Managed : This process is quantitatively managed in accordance with agreed upon metrics (5) Optimizing : Process management includes deliberate process improvement.

Q321UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Match the software maintenance activities in List-I to its meaning in List-II List-I i. Corrective ii. Adaptive iii. Perfective iv. Preventive List-II A. Concerned with performing activities to reduce the software complexity thereby improving program understandability and increasing software maintainability B. Concerned with fixing errors that are observed when the software is in use. C. Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to make the software adaptable to new environment (both hardware and software) D. Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to make the software adaptable to changing user requirements. Code: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  1. A(B) (D) (C) (A)
  2. B(B) (C) (D) (A)
  3. C(C) (B) (D) (A)
  4. D(A) (D) (B) (C)
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Correct answer: (B) (B) (C) (D) (A)

Explanation

(i) Corrective maintenance fixes errors observed when the software is in use – (B). (ii) Adaptive maintenance changes the software to make it adaptable to a new environment – (C). (iii) Perfective maintenance implements new or changed user requirements – (D). (iv) Preventive maintenance performs activities to reduce complexity and prevent future errors – (A).

Q322UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The number of function points of a proposed system is calculated as 500. Suppose that the system is planned to be developed in Java and the LOC/FP ratio of Java is 50. Estimate the effort (E) required to complete the project using the effort formula of basic COCOMO given below: E = a(KLOC)ᵇ Assume that the values of a and b are 2.5 and 1.0 respectively.
  1. A25 person months
  2. B75 person months
  3. C62.5 person months
  4. D72.5 person months
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Correct answer: (C) 62.5 person months

Explanation

LOC = 500 FP × 50 LOC/FP = 25000 LOC = 25 KLOC. E = a(KLOC)ᵇ = 2.5 × (25)¹ = 62.5 person months.

Q323UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
A software program that infers and manipulates existing knowledge in order to generate new knowledge is known as :
  1. AData dictionary
  2. BReference mechanism
  3. CInference engine
  4. DControl strategy
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Correct answer: (C) Inference engine

Explanation

A software program that infers and manipulates existing knowledge in order to generate new knowledge is known as Inference engine. A data dictionary is a collection of descriptions of the data objects or items in a data model for the benefit of programmers and others who need to refer to them. Control strategies are specific action plans for bringing a process back into control. Reference is what relates words to the world of objects on whose condition the truth of sentences hinges and it is natural to wonder what sorts of relations underlie the reference relation-to wonder, that is, what constitutes the mechanism of reference.

Q324UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Match each application/software design concept in List-I to its definition in List-II. List-I i. Coupling ii. Cohesion iii. Scalable iv. Readable List-II A. Easy to visually inspect the design of the software and understand its purpose B. Easy to add functionality to a software without having to redesign it C. Focus of a code upon a single goal. D. Reliance of a code module upon other code modules. Code: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  1. A(B) (A) (D) (C)
  2. B(C) (D) (A) (B)
  3. C(D) (C) (B) (A)
  4. D(D) (A) (C) (B)
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Correct answer: (C) (D) (C) (B) (A)

Explanation

(i) Coupling measures how dependent modules are on each other – (D). (ii) Cohesion reflects how well a module's elements work toward a single purpose – (C). (iii) Scalability means the system can grow (add functionality/workload) without redesign – (B). (iv) Readable code is easy to inspect and understand – (A).

Q325UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Software safety is quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that
  1. AAffect the reliability of a software component
  2. BMay cause an entire system to fail
  3. CMay result from user input errors
  4. DPrevent profitable marketing of the final product
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Correct answer: (B) May cause an entire system to fail

Explanation

Software safety is a software quality assurance activity that focuses on the identification and assessment to potential hazards that may affect software negatively and cause an entire system to fail. If hazards can be identified early in the software process, software design factures can be specified that will either eliminate or control potential hazards.

Q326UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
  1. AHTML is not screen precise formatting language
  2. BHTML does not specify a logic
  3. CDHTML is used for developing highly interactive web pages
  4. DHTML is a programming language
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Correct answer: (D) HTML is a programming language

Explanation

HTML is not programming language Programming Language means where writing logic is possible which is not supported by HTML.

Q327UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct with reference to curve generation? I. Hermit curves are generated using the concepts of interpolation. II. Bezier curves are generated using the concepts of approximation. III. The Bazier curve lies entirely within the convex hull of its control points. IV. The degree of Bezier curve does not depend on the number of control points.
  1. AI, II and IV only
  2. BII and III only
  3. CI and II only
  4. DI, II and III only
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Correct answer: (D) I, II and III only

Explanation

Hermite curves smoothly interpolate between key points. Bezier curves approximate their control points and lie entirely within the convex hull of the control points. The number of control points determines the degree of the Bezier polynomial, so IV is false. So the answer is option (d).

Q328UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Given the following statements : (1) To implement Abstract data type, a programming language require a syntactic unit to encapsulate type definition. (2) To implement ADT, a programming language requires some primitive operations that are built in the language processor. (3) C++, Ada, Java 5.0, C#2005 provide support for parameterized ADT Which one of the following options is correct?
  1. A(1), (2) and (3) are false
  2. B(1) and (2) are true; (3) is false
  3. C(1) is true; (2) and (3) are false
  4. D(1), (2) and (3) are true
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Correct answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3) are true

Explanation

Language requirements for ADTs: a syntactic unit in which to encapsulate the type definition, and some primitive operations built into the language processor. Ada provides packages that simulate ADTs, C++ provides data abstraction through classes, and Java's data abstraction is similar to C++. C++, Ada, Java 5.0 and C# 2005 support parameterized ADTs. So (1), (2) and (3) are true. Hence, the answer is (d).

Q329UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
When one object reference variable is assigned to another object reference variable then
  1. AA copy of the object is created
  2. BA copy of the reference is created
  3. CA copy of the reference is not created
  4. DIt is illegal to assign one object reference variable to another object reference variable
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Correct answer: (B) A copy of the reference is created

Explanation

Assigning one object reference variable to another copies only the reference (address), not the object. Both variables then refer to the same object; no distinct copy of the object is created. So a copy of the reference is created.

Q330UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The region of feasible solution of a linear programming problem has a ______ property in geometry, provided the feasible solution of the problem exists.
  1. AConcavity
  2. BConvexity
  3. CQuadratic
  4. DPolyhedron
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Correct answer: (B) Convexity

Explanation

Each constraint is satisfied by the points of a closed half space of Rⁿ, and the set of feasible solutions is the intersection of all these half spaces, which is a convex polyhedron. So the feasible region has the convexity property. The answer is (b).

Q331UGC NET Computer Science, June 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider the following statements : (1) Revised simplex method requires lesser computations than the Simplex method. (2) Revised simplex method automatically generates the inverse of the current basis matrix. (3) Less number of entries are needed in each table of revised simplex method than usual simplex method. Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A(1) and (2) only
  2. B(1) and (3) only
  3. C(2) and (3) only
  4. D(1), (2) and (3)
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Correct answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3)

Explanation

The revised simplex method is an improvement over the simplex method: it is computationally more efficient (fewer computations), it automatically generates the inverse of the current basis matrix, and fewer entries are needed in each table, since the simplex method updates the entire tableau while only a small part is used. So answer is option (d).

Q332UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The octal number 326.4 is equivalent to :
  1. A(214.2)₁₀ and (D6.8)₁₆
  2. B(212.5)₁₀ and (D6.8)₁₆
  3. C(214.5)₁₀ and (D6.8)₁₆
  4. D(214.5)₁₀ and (D6.4)₁₆
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Correct answer: (C) (214.5)₁₀ and (D6.8)₁₆

Explanation

(326.4)₈ = (3 × 8² + 2 × 8¹ + 6 × 8⁰ + 4 × 8⁻¹)₁₀ = (214.5)₁₀. (326.4)₈ = (011 010 110.100)₂ = (1101 0110.1000)₂ = (D6.8)₁₆.

Q333UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following is the most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the numbers?
  1. ASign–magnitude
  2. B1's complement
  3. C2's complement
  4. D9's complement
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Correct answer: (C) 2's complement

Explanation

In 1's complement there are two representations of zero: –0 (11111111) and +0 (00000000). In 2's complement there is only one representation of 0 (00000000), so 2's complement is the most efficient for performing arithmetic operations on numbers.

Q334UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The Karnaugh map for a Boolean function is given as C'D' C'D CD CD' A'B' 0 0 0 0 A'B 0 0 1 0 AB 1 1 1 1 AB' 0 1 1 1 The simplified Boolean equation for the above Karnaugh Map is
  1. AAB + CD + AB' + AD
  2. BAB + AC + AD + BCD
  3. CAB + AD + BC + ACD
  4. DAB + AC + BC + BCD
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Correct answer: (B) AB + AC + AD + BCD

Explanation

Grouping the 1s of the K-map: row AB gives AB; the cells with A = 1 and D = 1 give AD; the cells with A = 1 and C = 1 give AC; and cell A'BCD is covered by BCD. Therefore f = AB + AC + AD + BCD.

Q335UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Which of the following logic operations is performed by the following given combinational circuit? Circuit: inputs x and y feed a NOR gate G1. Gate G2 is a NOR gate with inputs x and G1. Gate G3 is a NOR gate with inputs y and G1. The outputs of G2 and G3 feed an OR gate whose output is f.
  1. AEXCLUSIVE-OR
  2. BEXCLUSIVE-NOR
  3. CNAND
  4. DNOR
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Correct answer: (A) EXCLUSIVE-OR

Explanation

G1 = (x + y)'. G2 = (x + (x + y)')' = x'(x + y) = x'y. G3 = (y + (x + y)')' = y'(x + y) = xy'. f = x'y + xy' = x ⊕ y, i.e. EXCLUSIVE-OR.

Q336UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Match the following : List-I A. Controlled Inverter B. Full adder C. Half adder D. Binary adder List-II i. a circuit that can add 3 bits ii. a circuit that can add two binary numbers iii. a circuit that transmits a binary word or its 1's complement iv. a logic circuit that adds 2 bits Codes : A B C D
  1. Aiii ii iv i
  2. Bii iv i iii
  3. Ciii iv i ii
  4. Diii i iv ii
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Correct answer: (D) iii i iv ii

Explanation

Half adder adds 2 bits; full adder adds 3 bits; a controlled inverter transmits a binary word or its 1's complement; a binary adder adds two binary numbers. So A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii. Hence, answer is (d).

Q337UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Let A and B be sets in a finite universal set U. Given the following : |A – B|, |A ⊕ B|, |A| + |B| and |A ∪ B| Which of the following is in order of increasing size?
  1. A|A – B| ≤ |A ⊕ B| ≤ |A| + |B| ≤ |A ∪ B|
  2. B|A ⊕ B| ≤ |A – B| ≤ |A ∪ B| ≤ |A| + |B|
  3. C|A ⊕ B| ≤ |A| + |B| ≤ |A – B| ≤ |A ∪ B|
  4. D|A – B| ≤ |A ⊕ B| ≤ |A ∪ B| ≤ |A| + |B|
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Correct answer: (D) |A – B| ≤ |A ⊕ B| ≤ |A ∪ B| ≤ |A| + |B|

Explanation

Using a Venn diagram: A – B ⊆ A ⊕ B ⊆ A ∪ B, and |A ∪ B| = |A| + |B| – |A ∩ B| ≤ |A| + |B|. Therefore |A – B| ≤ |A ⊕ B| ≤ |A ∪ B| ≤ |A| + |B|.

Q338UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The Boolean function [~(~p∧q)∧~(~p∧~q)] ∨ (p∧r) is equal to Boolean function :
  1. Aq
  2. Bp ∧ r
  3. Cp ∨ r
  4. Dp
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Correct answer: (D) p

Explanation

~(~p∧q) ∧ ~(~p∧~q) = (p ∨ ~q) ∧ (p ∨ q) = p ∨ (~q ∧ q) = p. So the function is p ∨ (p ∧ r) = p(1 + r) = p.

Q339UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly language program, is : MVI A, 35H MOV B, A STC CMC RAR XRA B
  1. A00H
  2. B35H
  3. CEFH
  4. D2FH
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Correct answer: (D) 2FH

Explanation

MVI A, 35H: A = 35H. MOV B, A: B = 35H. STC: carry = 1. CMC: carry = 0. RAR: rotate A right through carry, A = 0001 1010 (1AH). XRA B: (0001 1010) XOR (0011 0101) = 0010 1111 = 2FH.

Q340UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider the following statements : S₁ : A queue can be implemented using two stacks. S₂ : A stack can be implemented using two queues. Which of the following is correct?
  1. AS₁ is correct and S₂ is not correct
  2. BS₁ is not correct and S₂ is correct
  3. CBoth S₁ and S₂ are correct
  4. DBoth S₁ and S₂ are not correct
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Correct answer: (C) Both S₁ and S₂ are correct

Explanation

A queue can be implemented using two stacks S1 and S2: enqueue pushes onto S1; for dequeue, if S2 is not empty pop from it, otherwise first pop all elements of S1 and push them into S2, then pop from S2. So S₁ is correct. Similarly, a stack can be implemented using two queues, so S₂ is also correct. Hence, the answer is option (c).

Q341UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Given the following prefix expression : * + 3 + ↑ 3 + 3 3 3 What is the value of the prefix expression?
  1. A2178
  2. B2199
  3. C2205
  4. D2232
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Correct answer: (C) 2205

Explanation

Evaluating from the right: + 3 3 = 6; ↑ 3 6 = 3⁶ = 729; + 3 729 = 732; + 3 732 = 735; * 735 3 = 2205.

Q342UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider an implementation of unsorted single linked list. Suppose it has its representation with a head and a tail pointer (i.e. pointers to the first and last nodes of the linked list). Given the representation, which of the following operation can not be implemented in O(1) time?
  1. AInsertion at the front of the linked list
  2. BInsertion at the end of the linked list
  3. CDeletion of the front node of the linked list
  4. DDeletion of the last node of the linked list
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Correct answer: (D) Deletion of the last node of the linked list

Explanation

Although we have a tail pointer, it is of no use for deletion because there is no previous pointer. To delete the last node we need a pointer to the second-last node so that it can become the new last node; finding it requires traversing the whole list, which takes O(n) time.

Q343UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Let us assume that you construct ordered tree to represent the compound proposition (~(p ∧ q)) ↔ (~p ∧ ~ q). Then, the prefix expression and post-fix expression determined using this ordered tree are given as ............ and ............. respectively.
  1. A↔~∧pq∨~~pq, pq∧~p~q~∨↔
  2. B↔~∧pq∧~p~q, pq∧~p~q~∧↔
  3. C↔∧pq∨~~pq, pq∧~p~~q∧↔
  4. D↔~∧pq∧~p~q, pq∧~p~~q∧↔
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Correct answer: (B) ↔~∧pq∧~p~q, pq∧~p~q~∧↔

Explanation

The root is ↔, its left subtree is ~(p ∧ q) and its right subtree is (~p ∧ ~q). Prefix: ↔~∧pq∧~p~q Postfix: pq∧~p~q~∧↔ Option (b) is the answer.

Q344UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
The run time for traversing all the nodes of a binary search tree with n nodes and printing them in an order is :
  1. AO (lg n)
  2. BO(n lg n)
  3. CO(n)
  4. DO(n²)
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Correct answer: (C) O(n)

Explanation

Printing the elements in order means printing them in sorted order; inorder traversal of a BST gives the sorted order and visits each node once, taking O(n) time. For a balanced BST T(n) = 2T(n/2) + c and for a skewed tree T(n) = T(n – 1) + c; both solve to O(n).

Q345UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
What is the probability that a randomly selected bit string of length 10 is a palindrome?
  1. A1/64
  2. B1/32
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/4
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Correct answer: (B) 1/32

Explanation

In a 10-bit palindrome the first 5 bits can be chosen freely and the last 5 bits are fixed by them. So there are 2⁵ palindromes out of 2¹⁰ strings. Probability = 2⁵/2¹⁰ = 1/2⁵ = 1/32.

Q346UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Given i = 0, j = 1, k = –1 x = 0.5, y = 0.0 What is the output of given 'C' expression? x * 3 && 3 || j | k
  1. A–1
  2. B0
  3. C1
  4. D2
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Correct answer: (C) 1

Explanation

x * 3 = 1.5, which is non-zero (true), and 3 is true, so x * 3 && 3 = 1. Then 1 || (j | k) = 1 (logical OR returns 1). The output is 1.

Q347UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
In C++, polymorphism requires :
  1. AInheritance only
  2. BVirtual functions only
  3. CReferences only
  4. DInheritance, Virtual functions and references
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Correct answer: (D) Inheritance, Virtual functions and references

Explanation

Basically polymorphism means having many forms. In C++, polymorphism requires Inheritance, Virtual functions and references, because polymorphism occurs when there is a hierarchy of classes and they are related by inheritance which include virtual functions and references.

Q348UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Five jobs A, B, C, D and E are waiting in Ready Queue. Their expected runtimes are 9, 6, 3, 5 are x respectively. All jobs entered in Ready queue at time zero. They must run in ......... order to minimize average response time if 3 < x < 5.
  1. AB, A, D, E, C
  2. BC, E, D, B, A
  3. CE, D, C, B, A
  4. DC, B, A, E, D
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Correct answer: (B) C, E, D, B, A

Explanation

To minimize average response time the jobs must run in shortest-job-first order: C(3), E(3 < x < 5), D(5), B(6), A(9).

Q349UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider three CPU intensive processes P1, P2, P3 which require 20, 10 and 30 units of time, arrive at times 1, 3 and 7 respectively. Suppose operating system is implementing shortest Remaining time first (preemptive scheduling) algorithm, then .............. context switches are required (suppose context switch at the beginning of ready queue and at the end of Ready queue are not counted).
  1. A3
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. D5
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Correct answer: (A) 3

Explanation

P1 arrives at time 1 and runs. At time 3, P2 arrives with a shorter remaining time (10 < 18), so there is a switch to P2 (1). P2 runs to completion at time 13 since no shorter job arrives, then there is a switch to P1 (2). P1 (remaining 18) runs to completion since its remaining time is less than P3's burst time (30), then there is a switch to P3 (3), which runs to completion. So 3 context switches are required.

Q350UGC NET Computer Science, August 2016 (Paper II & III, Selected Questions)
Consider a system with seven processes A through G and six resources R through W. Resource ownership is as follows : process A holds R and wants T process B holds nothing but wants T process C holds nothing but wants S process D holds U and wants S & T process E holds T and wants S process F holds W and wants S process G holds V and wants U Is the system deadlocked? If yes, ............... processes are deadlocked.
  1. ANo
  2. BYes, A, B, C
  3. CYes, D, E, G
  4. DYes, A, B, F
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Correct answer: (C) Yes, D, E, G

Explanation

Note: the original exam reads "process E holds T and wants V"; as printed (E wants S, which no process holds) there would be no cycle, but the key assumes the original wording. In the resource allocation graph there is a cycle D → T → E → V → G → U → D (D waits for T held by E, E waits for V held by G, G waits for U held by D). So the system is deadlocked and processes D, E and G are deadlocked. Answer is option (c).

How to use these UGC NET Computer Science questions

Every question here was asked in a real UGC NET paper; the paper and shift are shown on the card, and the number opens the question on its own page. Try each one before tapping Show answer, then attempt the full UGC NET papers as timed tests to check your speed under exam conditions.