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DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 3

All 200 questions of DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 3 with the correct answer and a solution. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the paper as a timed online test.

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  • 160 explained
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General Awareness 20 questions

Q1
Census 2027, for which preparatory operations began in 2026, introduced which major change in India's census exercise?
  1. ACensus without house-listing operations
  2. BFirst census held every five years
  3. CFirst fully digital enumeration
  4. DFirst census conducted by NITI Aayog
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Correct answer: (C) First fully digital enumeration

Q2
In July 2026, the CG Semi OSAT (Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test) facility was inaugurated at which place?
  1. ASanand, Gujarat
  2. BHosur, Tamil Nadu
  3. CDholera, Gujarat
  4. DNoida, Uttar Pradesh
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Correct answer: (A) Sanand, Gujarat

Q3
The 594-km access-controlled greenfield Ganga Expressway, inaugurated in April 2026, is located in which State?
  1. ABihar
  2. BUttar Pradesh
  3. CUttarakhand
  4. DWest Bengal
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Correct answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh

Q4
The Zojila Tunnel, which achieved a historic breakthrough in June 2026, provides all-weather road connectivity between:
  1. AHimachal Pradesh and Ladakh
  2. BSikkim and Tibet
  3. CJammu & Kashmir and Ladakh
  4. DAssam and Arunachal Pradesh
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Correct answer: (C) Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh

Q5
In February 2026, the International Fleet Review (IFR) and the multilateral exercise MILAN 2026 were hosted off the coast of:
  1. AKochi
  2. BVisakhapatnam
  3. CPort Blair
  4. DMumbai
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Correct answer: (B) Visakhapatnam

Q6
Which country was ranked the most peaceful country in the Global Peace Index 2026?
  1. AIceland
  2. BDenmark
  3. CNew Zealand
  4. DIreland
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Correct answer: (A) Iceland

Q7
The World Governments Summit 2026 was held in which city?
  1. ADoha
  2. BRiyadh
  3. CDubai
  4. DAbu Dhabi
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Correct answer: (C) Dubai

Q8
The 9th Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) 2026 was held in which country?
  1. ASri Lanka
  2. BMauritius
  3. COman
  4. DMaldives
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Correct answer: (B) Mauritius

Q9
Which country holds the BRICS Chairship in 2026?
  1. ASouth Africa
  2. BIndia
  3. CBrazil
  4. DRussia
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Correct answer: (B) India

Q10
What is the name of the ₹10,000 crore fund announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 to help high-potential small enterprises scale up into future champions?
  1. ASME Growth Fund
  2. BSelf-Reliant India Fund
  3. CFund of Funds for Startups
  4. DMSME Innovation Fund
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Correct answer: (A) SME Growth Fund

Q11
Which initiative, with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore over five years, was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 to strengthen India's ecosystem for the production of biologics?
  1. APRIP Scheme
  2. BBulk Drug Parks Scheme
  3. CPLI Scheme for Pharmaceuticals
  4. DBiopharma SHAKTI
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Correct answer: (D) Biopharma SHAKTI

Q12
The Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2026 (RB-IOS, 2026) came into effect from:
  1. A12 November 2021
  2. B1 April 2026
  3. C1 January 2027
  4. D1 July 2026
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Correct answer: (D) 1 July 2026

Q13
Who became the first person to run an officially recognised marathon in under two hours in 2026?
  1. AJacob Kiplimo
  2. BKenenisa Bekele
  3. CSabastian Sawe
  4. DEliud Kipchoge
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Correct answer: (C) Sabastian Sawe

Q14
Who became the first Indian woman trap shooter to win a gold medal at an ISSF World Cup (Lonato, Italy, 2026)?
  1. ANeeru Dhanda
  2. BShreyasi Singh
  3. CRajeshwari Kumari
  4. DManu Bhaker
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Correct answer: (A) Neeru Dhanda

Q15
Which State has been designated as the host of the 39th National Games in 2027?
  1. ATelangana
  2. BMeghalaya
  3. CUttarakhand
  4. DGoa
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Correct answer: (B) Meghalaya

Q16
The Escazú Agreement, which held its 4th COP in April 2026, is a regional environmental treaty of which region?
  1. AEuropean Union
  2. BSub-Saharan Africa
  3. CAsia-Pacific
  4. DLatin America and the Caribbean
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Correct answer: (D) Latin America and the Caribbean

Q17
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 introduced which principle more prominently into India's waste-management framework?
  1. AMandatory incineration of all waste
  2. BPolluter-pays only for industries
  3. CExport-led waste recycling
  4. DCircular economy and Extended
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Correct answer: (D) Circular economy and Extended

Q18
National Doctors' Day is observed in India on 1 July in honour of:
  1. ADr. M. S. Swaminathan
  2. BDr. Anandi Gopal Joshi
  3. CDr. Yellapragada Subbarow
  4. DDr. B. C. Roy
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Correct answer: (D) Dr. B. C. Roy

Q19
What was the UN theme for International Women's Day 2026?
  1. ARights. Justice. Action. For ALL Women and Girls
  2. BDigitALL: Innovation and Technology for Gender Equality
  3. CFor ALL Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment.
  4. DInvest in Women: Accelerate Progress
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Correct answer: (A) Rights. Justice. Action. For ALL Women and Girls

Q20
Which bill relating to the Supreme Court was passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Monsoon Session of 2026?
  1. AJudges (Inquiry) Amendment Bill, 2026
  2. BSupreme Court Judges (Salaries) Amendment Bill, 2026
  3. CSupreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026
  4. DNational Judicial Appointments
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Correct answer: (C) Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability 20 questions

Q21
Find the missing number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
  1. A44
  2. B42
  3. C46
  4. D40
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Correct answer: (B) 42

Explanation

n(n+1): 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, 5×6, 6×7 = 42 (differences 4, 6, 8, 10, 12).

Q22
Find the next term: Z, W, T, Q, N, ?
  1. AK
  2. BM
  3. CJ
  4. DL
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Correct answer: (A) K

Explanation

Each letter moves back by 3: N(14) − 3 = 11 → K.

Q23
If ROAD is written as URDG, how is SWAN written in the same code?
  1. AVYDQ
  2. BUZDQ
  3. CVZDQ
  4. DVZCQ
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Correct answer: (C) VZDQ

Explanation

Each letter +3: S→V, W→Z, A→D, N→Q → VZDQ.

Q24
If PAPER is written as REPAP, how is STONE written in that code?
  1. AENOST
  2. BENOTS
  3. CESOTN
  4. DETONS
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Correct answer: (B) ENOTS

Explanation

The word is simply reversed → STONE → ENOTS.

Q25
Find the odd one out: Violin, Flute, Guitar, Sitar
  1. AGuitar
  2. BSitar
  3. CViolin
  4. DFlute
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Correct answer: (D) Flute

Explanation

Flute is a wind instrument; the others are string instruments.

Q26
Find the odd one out: 27, 64, 125, 100
  1. A64
  2. B27
  3. C125
  4. D100
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Correct answer: (D) 100

Explanation

27=3³, 64=4³, 125=5³ are perfect cubes; 100 is not.

Q27
Pen : Write :: Knife : ?
  1. ASteel
  2. BSharp
  3. CKitchen
  4. DCut
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Correct answer: (D) Cut

Explanation

Object : its function → pen is used to write, knife is used to cut.

Q28
9 : 80 :: 11 : ?
  1. A130
  2. B120
  3. C110
  4. D121
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Correct answer: (B) 120

Explanation

n : n² − 1 → 81 − 1 = 80; 121 − 1 = 120.

Q29
BDF : CEG :: HJL : ?
  1. AJKM
  2. BIJM
  3. CIKM
  4. DIKN
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Correct answer: (C) IKM

Explanation

Each letter +1: H→I, J→K, L→M → IKM.

Q30
If 'P' means '+', 'Q' means '−', 'R' means '×' and 'S' means '÷', then 18 S 3 R 4 P 6 Q 2 = ?
  1. A30
  2. B26
  3. C28
  4. D24
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Correct answer: (C) 28

Explanation

18 ÷ 3 × 4 + 6 − 2 = 24 + 6 − 2 = 28.

Q31
If 2 $ 3 = 11 and 4 $ 5 = 29, then 3 $ 6 = ?
  1. A29
  2. B25
  3. C31
  4. D27
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Correct answer: (D) 27

Explanation

a $ b = a×b + a + b → 6+5=11, 20+9=29, so 18 + 9 = 27.

Q32
In a row of 25 girls facing North, Meena is 7th from the left end. Reena is 5th to the right of Meena. What is Reena's position from the right end?
  1. A15
  2. B12
  3. C14
  4. D13
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Correct answer: (C) 14

Explanation

Reena is 12th from left → from right = 25 − 12 + 1 = 14.

Q33
Anu is taller than Binu but shorter than Chinu. Dinu is shorter than Binu but taller than Enu. Who is the shortest?
  1. AAnu
  2. BEnu
  3. CDinu
  4. DBinu
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Correct answer: (B) Enu

Explanation

Chinu > Anu > Binu > Dinu > Enu → Enu is shortest.

Q34
Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my father." How is the woman related to the man?
  1. AMother
  2. BWife
  3. CDaughter
  4. DSister
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Correct answer: (B) Wife

Explanation

Only daughter of my father = myself. So his wife = the woman herself → Wife.

Q35
A man walks 10 m towards East, turns left and walks 5 m, turns left again and walks 10 m, then turns right and walks 5 m. How far is he from his starting point?
  1. A5 m
  2. B10 m
  3. C20 m
  4. D15 m
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Correct answer: (B) 10 m

Explanation

East 10 → North 5 → West 10 (back above start) → North 5. He is 10 m North of the start.

Q36
Four persons P, Q, R and S wear red, blue, green and yellow shirts (one each). P does not wear red or blue. Q wears yellow. R does not wear green. S wears red. Who wears blue?
  1. AR
  2. BP
  3. CQ
  4. DS
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Correct answer: (A) R

Explanation

Q = yellow, S = red, P (not red/blue) = green, so R = blue.

Q37
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing North. C is third from the left. B is immediately to the left of C. A sits at the extreme right. E is immediately to the right of C. D does not sit at any extreme end. Who sits at the extreme left?
  1. AB
  2. BD
  3. CF
  4. DE
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Correct answer: (C) F

Explanation

Positions: 1-F, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D, 6-A → F is at the extreme left.

Q38
Statement: "Use our toothpaste for whiter teeth." – An advertisement. Assumptions: I. People want whiter teeth. II. No other toothpaste can whiten teeth.
  1. ANeither is implicit
  2. BOnly I is implicit
  3. CBoth are implicit
  4. DOnly II is implicit
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Correct answer: (B) Only I is implicit

Explanation

The ad assumes people want whiter teeth (I). It does not claim that no other paste works (II not implicit).

Q39
Statements: Some cats are dogs. All dogs are birds. Conclusions: I. Some cats are birds. II. All birds are dogs.
  1. AOnly I follows
  2. BOnly II follows
  3. CBoth follow
  4. DNeither follows
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Correct answer: (A) Only I follows

Explanation

The cats that are dogs are also birds → some cats are birds (I). II reverses 'all dogs are birds', which is not valid.

Q40
Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among: Cricket, Football, Hockey?
  1. AThree separate circles, none overlapping
  2. BThree circles overlapping one another
  3. CThree concentric circles, one inside the other
  4. DTwo separate small circles inside one big circle
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Correct answer: (A) Three separate circles, none overlapping

Explanation

(A) Three separate circles. The three are different games with nothing in common as classes → three separate circles.

Arithmetical & Numerical Ability 20 questions

Q41
Find the value of: (0.75 × 0.75 × 0.75 − 0.25 × 0.25 × 0.25) ÷ (0.75 × 0.75 + 0.75 × 0.25 + 0.25 × 0.25)
  1. A0.25
  2. B0.75
  3. C0.5
  4. D1
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Correct answer: (C) 0.5

Q42
What is the sum of all natural numbers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 7?
  1. A735
  2. B742
  3. C728
  4. D700
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Correct answer: (A) 735

Q43
The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 336 respectively. If one of the numbers is 84, the other number is:
  1. A36
  2. B48
  3. C42
  4. D56
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Correct answer: (B) 48

Q44
The population of a town is 25,000. It increases by 10% in the first year and decreases by 10% in the second year. The population after 2 years is:
  1. A25,000
  2. B25,250
  3. C24,750
  4. D24,500
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Correct answer: (C) 24,750

Q45
A student has to secure 35% marks to pass. He gets 182 marks and fails by 28 marks. The maximum marks are:
  1. A560
  2. B600
  3. C640
  4. D520
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Correct answer: (B) 600

Q46
If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, the profit percent is:
  1. A25%
  2. B20%
  3. C15%
  4. D30%
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Correct answer: (A) 25%

Q47
A trader allows a discount of 20% on the marked price and still gains 20%. If the cost price is ₹ 400, the marked price is:
  1. A₹ 560
  2. B₹ 576
  3. C₹ 600
  4. D₹ 640
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Correct answer: (C) ₹ 600

Q48
A car covers a certain distance in 5 hours at a speed of 72 km/h. What speed is needed to cover the same distance in 4 hours?
  1. A80 km/h
  2. B90 km/h
  3. C85 km/h
  4. D96 km/h
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Correct answer: (B) 90 km/h

Q49
If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, then A : B : C is:
  1. A4 : 6 : 15
  2. B8 : 12 : 15
  3. C2 : 3 : 5
  4. D8 : 12 : 5
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Correct answer: (B) 8 : 12 : 15

Q50
The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If each of them saves ₹ 2000, A's income is:
  1. A₹ 12,000
  2. B₹ 10,000
  3. C₹ 8,000
  4. D₹ 15,000
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Correct answer: (A) ₹ 12,000

Q51
The average of five consecutive even numbers is 36. The largest of these numbers is:
  1. A44
  2. B42
  3. C38
  4. D40
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Correct answer: (D) 40

Q52
A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹ 9800 in 5 years and ₹ 12005 in 8 years. The rate of interest per annum is:
  1. A11%
  2. B10%
  3. C9%
  4. D12%
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Correct answer: (D) 12%

Q53
What is the compound interest on ₹ 12,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years, compounded annually?
  1. A₹ 4,972
  2. B₹ 3,792
  3. C₹ 3,972
  4. D₹ 3,600
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Correct answer: (C) ₹ 3,972

Q54
12 men or 18 women can complete a piece of work in 14 days. In how many days will 8 men and 16 women complete it?
  1. A9 days
  2. B12 days
  3. C8 days
  4. D10 days
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Correct answer: (A) 9 days

Q55
Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. An outlet pipe can empty the full tank in 15 minutes. If all three are opened together when the tank is empty, the tank will be filled in:
  1. A75 min
  2. B60 min
  3. C40 min
  4. D45 min
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Correct answer: (B) 60 min

Q56
How many cubes of edge 2 cm can be cut from a cuboid measuring 12 cm × 8 cm × 6 cm?
  1. A96
  2. B64
  3. C48
  4. D72
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Correct answer: (D) 72

Q57
If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%, its area increases by:
  1. A21%
  2. B40%
  3. C20%
  4. D44%
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Correct answer: (D) 44%

Q58
If 15 August 2024 was a Thursday, then 15 August 2025 was a:
  1. AThursday
  2. BWednesday
  3. CSaturday
  4. DFriday
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Correct answer: (D) Friday

Q59
Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the question. Production of cars (in thousands), 2022 and 2023: Company P: 30 and 36; Company Q: 45 and 40; Company R: 25 and 34 By what percent did the total production of cars in 2023 exceed that of 2022?
  1. A10%
  2. B8%
  3. C11%
  4. D12%
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Correct answer: (A) 10%

Q60
Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the question. Production of cars (in thousands), 2022 and 2023: Company P: 30 and 36; Company Q: 45 and 40; Company R: 25 and 34 Which company showed the highest percentage growth in production from 2022 to 2023?
  1. AP
  2. BP and R equally
  3. CR
  4. DQ
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Correct answer: (C) R

Hindi Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q61
'पौ बारह होना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है —
  1. Aसुबह जल्दी उठना
  2. Bहार जाना
  3. Cबहुत लाभ होना
  4. Dबारह बजना
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Correct answer: (C) बहुत लाभ होना

Explanation

पौ बारह होना = अत्यधिक लाभ होना। TGT 2021 PYQ।

Q62
'का बर्षा जब कृषि सुखाने' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है —
  1. Aमेहनत का फल मीठा होता है
  2. Bवर्षा से फसल नष्ट होना
  3. Cबेईमानी बार-बार नहीं फलती
  4. Dअवसर बीत जाने पर सहायता व्यर्थ है
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Correct answer: (D) अवसर बीत जाने पर सहायता व्यर्थ है

Explanation

फसल सूखने के बाद वर्षा व्यर्थ। TGT 2021 PYQ।

Q63
'जिसे जीता न जा सके' — वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द
  1. Aअजेय
  2. Bविजेता
  3. Cअजय
  4. Dअजीत
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Correct answer: (A) अजेय

Explanation

जिसे जीता न जा सके = अजेय।

Q64
'इंद्र' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है —
  1. Aदेवराज
  2. Bसुरपति
  3. Cपुरंदर
  4. Dयक्षराज
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Correct answer: (D) यक्षराज

Explanation

यक्षराज = कुबेर। सुरपति, देवराज, पुरंदर = इंद्र।

Q65
'उन्मूलन' का विलोम है —
  1. Aनिर्मूलन
  2. Bविनाश
  3. Cरोपण
  4. Dउत्पाटन
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Correct answer: (C) रोपण

Explanation

उन्मूलन (जड़ से उखाड़ना) ↔ रोपण (लगाना)।

Q66
'कपाट' का तद्भव रूप है —
  1. Aकपास
  2. Bकपड़ा
  3. Cकिवाड़
  4. Dकटोरा
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Correct answer: (C) किवाड़

Explanation

कपाट (तत्सम) → किवाड़ (तद्भव)। TGT 2021 PYQ।

Q67
'विद्युत् + शक्ति' की संधि है —
  1. Aविद्युत्शक्ति
  2. Bविद्युछक्ति
  3. Cविद्युतशक्ति
  4. Dविद्युच्छक्ति
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Correct answer: (D) विद्युच्छक्ति

Explanation

त् + श = च्छ (व्यंजन संधि) → विद्युच्छक्ति। (जैसे उत् + श्वास = उच्छ्वास)

Q68
'यथाशीघ्र' में समास है —
  1. Aअव्ययीभाव
  2. Bद्वंद्व
  3. Cकर्मधारय
  4. Dतत्पुरुष
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) अव्ययीभाव

Explanation

पहला पद 'यथा' अव्यय — अव्ययीभाव।

Q69
'पेड़ ___ पत्ते गिर रहे हैं।' — रिक्त स्थान में उचित परसर्ग
  1. Aको
  2. Bपर
  3. Cसे
  4. Dके लिए
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Correct answer: (C) से

Explanation

अलग होने का भाव — अपादान कारक 'से'।

Q70
'उसने अच्छे अंक लाकर परिवार का नाम उज्चल किया।' — रेखांकित शब्द (उज्चल) का शुद्ध रूप
  1. Aउजवल
  2. Bउज्ज्वल
  3. Cउज्जवल
  4. Dउज्वल
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Correct answer: (B) उज्ज्वल

Explanation

उत् + ज्वल = उज्ज्वल (दो 'ज')। 2025 पैटर्न: रेखांकित शब्द शुद्ध करो।

Q71
'सीता ने अपना बहन को पत्र लिखा।' — वाक्य के किस भाग में त्रुटि है?
  1. Aसीता ने
  2. Bअपना बहन को
  3. Cलिखा
  4. Dपत्र
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Correct answer: (B) अपना बहन को

Explanation

'बहन' स्त्रीलिंग है — 'अपनी बहन को'।

Q72
पदक्रम की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य है —
  1. Aदादी प्रतिदिन सुबह उठकर मंदिर जाती हैं।
  2. Bदादी मंदिर जाती हैं प्रतिदिन सुबह उठकर।
  3. Cउठकर सुबह दादी प्रतिदिन मंदिर जाती हैं।
  4. Dमंदिर जाती हैं दादी प्रतिदिन सुबह उठकर।
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Correct answer: (A) दादी प्रतिदिन सुबह उठकर मंदिर जाती हैं।

Explanation

कर्ता → समय → कर्म/स्थान → क्रिया (क्रिया अंत में)। 2023 पैटर्न।

Q73
'चरण-कमल बंदौं हरि राई' में अलंकार है —
  1. Aउत्प्रेक्षा
  2. Bउपमा
  3. Cश्लेष
  4. Dरूपक
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) रूपक

Explanation

चरण ही कमल हैं — उपमेय-उपमान में अभेद = रूपक।

Q74
'जो परिश्रम करता है, वह सफल होता है।' — रचना के आधार पर वाक्य है —
  1. Aमिश्र
  2. Bआज्ञावाचक
  3. Cसरल
  4. Dसंयुक्त
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) मिश्र

Explanation

'जो...वह' से आश्रित उपवाक्य — मिश्र वाक्य।

Q75
'वनों की कटाई से पर्यावरण का संतुलन ___ रहा है।'
  1. Aसँवर
  2. Bबिगड़
  3. Cसुधर
  4. Dनिखर
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) बिगड़

Explanation

कटाई का नकारात्मक परिणाम — 'बिगड़ रहा है'। 2025 पैटर्न: उचित क्रिया।

Q76
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी कथा-साहित्य के ऐसे स्तंभ हैं, जिन्होंने कहानी और उपन्यास को राजा-रानियों की कल्पनाओं से निकालकर आम आदमी के जीवन से जोड़ा। उनका वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय था। उन्होंने उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखना आरंभ किया, बाद में हिंदी में 'प्रेमचंद' नाम से प्रसिद्ध हुए। 'गोदान', 'गबन', 'निर्मला' और 'कर्मभूमि' उनके प्रमुख उपन्यास हैं, जबकि 'कफ़न', 'ईदगाह' और 'पूस की रात' उनकी अमर कहानियाँ हैं। उनकी रचनाओं में किसान की बेबसी, महाजनी शोषण, स्त्री की पीड़ा और समाज की कुरीतियों का यथार्थ चित्रण मिलता है। आरंभ में उन पर आदर्शवाद का प्रभाव था, किंतु बाद की रचनाओं, विशेषकर 'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए। उनकी भाषा सरल, सहज और मुहावरेदार है, जिसमें हिंदी और उर्दू का सुंदर मेल है। इसी कारण उन्हें 'उपन्यास सम्राट' कहा जाता है। प्रेमचंद का वास्तविक नाम क्या था?
  1. Aधनपत राय
  2. Bबालमुकुंद
  3. Cशरत चंद्र
  4. Dनवाब राय
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) धनपत राय

Explanation

गद्यांश के अनुसार वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय; उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखा।

Q77
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी कथा-साहित्य के ऐसे स्तंभ हैं, जिन्होंने कहानी और उपन्यास को राजा-रानियों की कल्पनाओं से निकालकर आम आदमी के जीवन से जोड़ा। उनका वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय था। उन्होंने उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखना आरंभ किया, बाद में हिंदी में 'प्रेमचंद' नाम से प्रसिद्ध हुए। 'गोदान', 'गबन', 'निर्मला' और 'कर्मभूमि' उनके प्रमुख उपन्यास हैं, जबकि 'कफ़न', 'ईदगाह' और 'पूस की रात' उनकी अमर कहानियाँ हैं। उनकी रचनाओं में किसान की बेबसी, महाजनी शोषण, स्त्री की पीड़ा और समाज की कुरीतियों का यथार्थ चित्रण मिलता है। आरंभ में उन पर आदर्शवाद का प्रभाव था, किंतु बाद की रचनाओं, विशेषकर 'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए। उनकी भाषा सरल, सहज और मुहावरेदार है, जिसमें हिंदी और उर्दू का सुंदर मेल है। इसी कारण उन्हें 'उपन्यास सम्राट' कहा जाता है। गद्यांश के अनुसार निम्नलिखित में से प्रेमचंद का उपन्यास है —
  1. Aकफ़न
  2. Bपूस की रात
  3. Cगोदान
  4. Dईदगाह
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) गोदान

Explanation

कफ़न, ईदगाह, पूस की रात — कहानियाँ हैं; गोदान उपन्यास है।

Q78
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी कथा-साहित्य के ऐसे स्तंभ हैं, जिन्होंने कहानी और उपन्यास को राजा-रानियों की कल्पनाओं से निकालकर आम आदमी के जीवन से जोड़ा। उनका वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय था। उन्होंने उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखना आरंभ किया, बाद में हिंदी में 'प्रेमचंद' नाम से प्रसिद्ध हुए। 'गोदान', 'गबन', 'निर्मला' और 'कर्मभूमि' उनके प्रमुख उपन्यास हैं, जबकि 'कफ़न', 'ईदगाह' और 'पूस की रात' उनकी अमर कहानियाँ हैं। उनकी रचनाओं में किसान की बेबसी, महाजनी शोषण, स्त्री की पीड़ा और समाज की कुरीतियों का यथार्थ चित्रण मिलता है। आरंभ में उन पर आदर्शवाद का प्रभाव था, किंतु बाद की रचनाओं, विशेषकर 'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए। उनकी भाषा सरल, सहज और मुहावरेदार है, जिसमें हिंदी और उर्दू का सुंदर मेल है। इसी कारण उन्हें 'उपन्यास सम्राट' कहा जाता है। बाद की रचनाओं में प्रेमचंद किस ओर मुड़ गए?
  1. Aआदर्शवाद
  2. Bरहस्यवाद
  3. Cछायावाद
  4. Dकठोर यथार्थ
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) कठोर यथार्थ

Explanation

'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए।

Q79
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी कथा-साहित्य के ऐसे स्तंभ हैं, जिन्होंने कहानी और उपन्यास को राजा-रानियों की कल्पनाओं से निकालकर आम आदमी के जीवन से जोड़ा। उनका वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय था। उन्होंने उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखना आरंभ किया, बाद में हिंदी में 'प्रेमचंद' नाम से प्रसिद्ध हुए। 'गोदान', 'गबन', 'निर्मला' और 'कर्मभूमि' उनके प्रमुख उपन्यास हैं, जबकि 'कफ़न', 'ईदगाह' और 'पूस की रात' उनकी अमर कहानियाँ हैं। उनकी रचनाओं में किसान की बेबसी, महाजनी शोषण, स्त्री की पीड़ा और समाज की कुरीतियों का यथार्थ चित्रण मिलता है। आरंभ में उन पर आदर्शवाद का प्रभाव था, किंतु बाद की रचनाओं, विशेषकर 'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए। उनकी भाषा सरल, सहज और मुहावरेदार है, जिसमें हिंदी और उर्दू का सुंदर मेल है। इसी कारण उन्हें 'उपन्यास सम्राट' कहा जाता है। 'यथार्थ' शब्द का विलोम है —
  1. Aतथ्य
  2. Bकल्पना
  3. Cसत्य
  4. Dवास्तविकता
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) कल्पना

Explanation

यथार्थ ↔ कल्पना। बाकी तीनों पर्यायवाची हैं।

Q80
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी कथा-साहित्य के ऐसे स्तंभ हैं, जिन्होंने कहानी और उपन्यास को राजा-रानियों की कल्पनाओं से निकालकर आम आदमी के जीवन से जोड़ा। उनका वास्तविक नाम धनपत राय था। उन्होंने उर्दू में 'नवाब राय' नाम से लिखना आरंभ किया, बाद में हिंदी में 'प्रेमचंद' नाम से प्रसिद्ध हुए। 'गोदान', 'गबन', 'निर्मला' और 'कर्मभूमि' उनके प्रमुख उपन्यास हैं, जबकि 'कफ़न', 'ईदगाह' और 'पूस की रात' उनकी अमर कहानियाँ हैं। उनकी रचनाओं में किसान की बेबसी, महाजनी शोषण, स्त्री की पीड़ा और समाज की कुरीतियों का यथार्थ चित्रण मिलता है। आरंभ में उन पर आदर्शवाद का प्रभाव था, किंतु बाद की रचनाओं, विशेषकर 'गोदान' और 'कफ़न' में वे कठोर यथार्थ की ओर मुड़ गए। उनकी भाषा सरल, सहज और मुहावरेदार है, जिसमें हिंदी और उर्दू का सुंदर मेल है। इसी कारण उन्हें 'उपन्यास सम्राट' कहा जाता है। गद्यांश के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक है —
  1. Aकिसान की बेबसी
  2. Bगोदान की कथा
  3. Cहिंदी-उर्दू का मेल
  4. Dउपन्यास सम्राट प्रेमचंद
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) उपन्यास सम्राट प्रेमचंद

Explanation

पूरा गद्यांश प्रेमचंद के जीवन, रचनाओं और भाषा पर है।

English Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q81
Hardly had we reached the station ______ the train left.
  1. Athen
  2. Bthat
  3. Cthan
  4. Dwhen
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Correct answer: (D) when

Explanation

Hardly / Scarcely ke saath 'when'. (No sooner ke saath 'than'.)

Q82
They seldom visit their grandparents, ______?
  1. Adon't they
  2. Bdo they
  3. Cdid they
  4. Ddidn't they
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Correct answer: (B) do they

Explanation

'Seldom' negative maana jaata hai → positive tag. Present tense → do they.

Q83
The jury ______ divided in their opinions.
  1. Ais
  2. Bwere
  3. Chas
  4. Dwas
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Correct answer: (B) were

Explanation

Jab members alag-alag soch rahe hon ('their opinions'), collective noun plural verb leta hai.

Q84
I am looking forward to ______ you.
  1. Abe meeting
  2. Bmet
  3. Cmeet
  4. Dmeeting
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Correct answer: (D) meeting

Explanation

'look forward to' ke baad V-ing aata hai.

Q85
She is very good ______ mathematics.
  1. Ain
  2. Bon
  3. Cwith
  4. Dat
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) at

Explanation

good at (kisi kaam mein achha).

Q86
Select the meaning of the idiom: To cut one's coat according to one's cloth
  1. ATo become a tailor
  2. BTo buy cheap clothes
  3. CTo live within one's means
  4. DTo waste money
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Correct answer: (C) To live within one's means

Explanation

Chaadar dekh ke pair phailaana. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q87
Select the meaning of the idiom: Once in a blue moon
  1. AVery rarely
  2. BFrequently
  3. CEvery month
  4. DOn a full moon night
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Correct answer: (A) Very rarely

Explanation

Bahut kam. 'Occasionally' wala trap PYQ mein aaya tha.

Q88
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: The researcher then compared the results with earlier studies. Q: First, a group of volunteers was selected for the experiment. R: Finally, the findings were published in a science journal. S: Each volunteer was given a different diet for six weeks.
  1. AQSPR
  2. BQPSR
  3. CSQPR
  4. DQSRP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) QSPR

Explanation

Signal words: First (Q) → experiment (S) → then compared (P) → Finally (R).

Q89
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: Gandhiji asked people to boycott foreign cloth. Q: Millions began spinning khadi at home. R: The Swadeshi movement aimed to make India self-reliant. S: This hurt British textile mills and strengthened local industry.
  1. APRQS
  2. BRQPS
  3. CRPQS
  4. DPQRS
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) RPQS

Explanation

General idea (R) → appeal (P) → logon ka kaam (Q) → nateeja (S).

Q90
Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
  1. ANecessary
  2. BPriviledge
  3. CAccommodate
  4. DLiaison
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Correct answer: (B) Priviledge

Explanation

Sahi spelling 'Privilege' hai, isme 'd' nahi hota. PYQs mein 2 baar.

Q91
One who does not believe in the existence of God
  1. AAgnostic
  2. BTheist
  3. CHeretic
  4. DAtheist
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Atheist

Explanation

Atheist = bhagwan nahi hai. Agnostic = pata nahi (PYQ mein 3 baar Agnostic poocha gaya, dono ka fark yaad rakho).

Q92
Select the synonym of: AMBIGUITY
  1. AVagueness
  2. BPrecision
  3. CClarity
  4. DCertainty
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Correct answer: (A) Vagueness

Explanation

Ambiguity = ek se zyada arth, aspashtata. PYQ mein 'Puzzle' answer tha.

Q93
Select the antonym of: LOQUACIOUS
  1. AVerbose
  2. BTalkative
  3. CReticent
  4. DGarrulous
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Correct answer: (C) Reticent

Explanation

Loquacious = baatooni. Ulta = Reticent (chup rehne wala).

Q94
Improve the bracketed part: If I [would have known] the truth, I would have told you.
  1. Aknew
  2. Bhad known
  3. Chave known
  4. DNo improvement
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) had known

Explanation

If + had V3 → would have V3. If-clause mein 'would' nahi aata.

Q95
Find the part with an error: Despite of his illness, (A) / he attended (B) / the meeting. (C) / No error (D)
  1. Athe meeting. (C)
  2. BDespite of his illness, (A)
  3. Che attended (B)
  4. DNo error
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Despite of his illness, (A)

Explanation

'Despite of' hamesha galat hai → Despite his illness.

Q96
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Human Side of Cybercrime As more Indians bank, shop and study online, cybercrime has grown at an alarming pace. Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust. A typical fraud begins with a message that appears to come from a bank or a delivery company, urging the victim to click a link or share a one-time password. Once the code is shared, money can vanish from an account within minutes. Experts say that awareness is the most effective defence. Simple habits, such as never sharing passwords, checking website addresses carefully and enabling two-factor authentication, can prevent a large share of these crimes. Victims are also advised to report fraud immediately on the national cybercrime helpline, because quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money. While police forces are setting up specialised cyber cells and forensic laboratories, officials admit that technology alone cannot stop fraud. Ultimately, a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall against online crime. According to the passage, most cyber attacks:
  1. Aexploit human trust
  2. Btarget only banks
  3. Ctake place offline
  4. Dneed advanced hacking skills
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) exploit human trust

Explanation

Passage: 'Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust.'

Q97
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Human Side of Cybercrime As more Indians bank, shop and study online, cybercrime has grown at an alarming pace. Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust. A typical fraud begins with a message that appears to come from a bank or a delivery company, urging the victim to click a link or share a one-time password. Once the code is shared, money can vanish from an account within minutes. Experts say that awareness is the most effective defence. Simple habits, such as never sharing passwords, checking website addresses carefully and enabling two-factor authentication, can prevent a large share of these crimes. Victims are also advised to report fraud immediately on the national cybercrime helpline, because quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money. While police forces are setting up specialised cyber cells and forensic laboratories, officials admit that technology alone cannot stop fraud. Ultimately, a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall against online crime. Why should victims report fraud immediately?
  1. AThe internet will be shut down
  2. BQuick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money
  3. CThe bank will be punished
  4. DThey will get a new password
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money

Explanation

Passage mein seedha reason diya hai: chance of freezing the stolen money.

Q98
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Human Side of Cybercrime As more Indians bank, shop and study online, cybercrime has grown at an alarming pace. Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust. A typical fraud begins with a message that appears to come from a bank or a delivery company, urging the victim to click a link or share a one-time password. Once the code is shared, money can vanish from an account within minutes. Experts say that awareness is the most effective defence. Simple habits, such as never sharing passwords, checking website addresses carefully and enabling two-factor authentication, can prevent a large share of these crimes. Victims are also advised to report fraud immediately on the national cybercrime helpline, because quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money. While police forces are setting up specialised cyber cells and forensic laboratories, officials admit that technology alone cannot stop fraud. Ultimately, a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall against online crime. The word 'alarming' in the passage is closest in meaning to:
  1. Aslow
  2. Bnormal
  3. Cworrying
  4. Dpleasant
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) worrying

Explanation

Alarming = chinta wala, worrying.

Q99
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Human Side of Cybercrime As more Indians bank, shop and study online, cybercrime has grown at an alarming pace. Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust. A typical fraud begins with a message that appears to come from a bank or a delivery company, urging the victim to click a link or share a one-time password. Once the code is shared, money can vanish from an account within minutes. Experts say that awareness is the most effective defence. Simple habits, such as never sharing passwords, checking website addresses carefully and enabling two-factor authentication, can prevent a large share of these crimes. Victims are also advised to report fraud immediately on the national cybercrime helpline, because quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money. While police forces are setting up specialised cyber cells and forensic laboratories, officials admit that technology alone cannot stop fraud. Ultimately, a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall against online crime. Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'cautious'.
  1. Awatchful
  2. Bcareful
  3. Ccareless
  4. Dalert
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) careless

Explanation

Cautious = saavdhaan. Ulta = careless. Baaki teen synonym hain.

Q100
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Human Side of Cybercrime As more Indians bank, shop and study online, cybercrime has grown at an alarming pace. Most attacks do not rely on complex hacking; instead, criminals exploit human trust. A typical fraud begins with a message that appears to come from a bank or a delivery company, urging the victim to click a link or share a one-time password. Once the code is shared, money can vanish from an account within minutes. Experts say that awareness is the most effective defence. Simple habits, such as never sharing passwords, checking website addresses carefully and enabling two-factor authentication, can prevent a large share of these crimes. Victims are also advised to report fraud immediately on the national cybercrime helpline, because quick action increases the chance of freezing the stolen money. While police forces are setting up specialised cyber cells and forensic laboratories, officials admit that technology alone cannot stop fraud. Ultimately, a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall against online crime. What is the author's main message?
  1. AAn informed and careful user is the best protection
  2. BOnline banking should be banned
  3. CTechnology alone can end cybercrime
  4. DPolice can do nothing against fraud
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) An informed and careful user is the best protection

Explanation

Aakhri line: 'a cautious and informed user remains the strongest wall'.

Computer Science 90 questions

Q101
(101101.101)₂ in decimal is:
  1. A44.625
  2. B45.625
  3. C46.125
  4. D45.5
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 45.625

Explanation

101101 = 45; .101 = 0.5 + 0.125 = 0.625.

Q102
The range of numbers representable in 8-bit 1's complement form is:
  1. A−127 to +127
  2. B−128 to +127
  3. C0 to 255
  4. D−128 to +128
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) −127 to +127

Explanation

1's complement has two zeros (+0 and −0).

Q103
How many 1K × 4 memory chips are needed to build an 8K × 8 memory?
  1. A16
  2. B4
  3. C32
  4. D8
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 16

Explanation

(8K × 8) / (1K × 4) = 8 × 2 = 16.

Q104
A 4-way set-associative cache of 16 KB uses 64-byte blocks and 32-bit addresses. How many tag bits are there?
  1. A18
  2. B26
  3. C20
  4. D22
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 20

Explanation

256 blocks / 4 = 64 sets → 6 set bits; offset 6 bits; tag = 32 − 12 = 20.

Q105
Instructions that use a stack for all operands follow which instruction format?
  1. AThree-address
  2. BZero-address
  3. CTwo-address
  4. DOne-address
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Zero-address

Explanation

PUSH/POP with operations on the stack top need no address field.

Q106
In which addressing mode is the operand given in the instruction itself?
  1. AImmediate
  2. BDirect
  3. CRegister indirect
  4. DIndirect
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Immediate

Explanation

Example: MOV A, #25.

Q107
Which of the following is the fastest memory?
  1. ACPU registers
  2. BMain memory
  3. CCache
  4. DSSD
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) CPU registers

Explanation

Registers are inside the CPU.

Q108
Which type of interrupt cannot be disabled by the processor?
  1. ASoftware interrupt
  2. BMaskable interrupt
  3. CNon-maskable interrupt (NMI)
  4. DVectored interrupt
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Non-maskable interrupt (NMI)

Explanation

NMI is used for critical events like power failure.

Q109
Standard ASCII uses how many bits to represent a character?
  1. A16
  2. B8
  3. C7
  4. D32
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 7

Explanation

7 bits → 128 characters; extended ASCII uses 8 bits.

Q110
Which pair of gates is called universal?
  1. AAND and OR
  2. BNOT and AND
  3. CNAND and NOR
  4. DXOR and XNOR
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) NAND and NOR

Explanation

Any logic function can be built from only NAND or only NOR.

Q111
A ⊕ 1 is equal to:
  1. A0
  2. BA
  3. C1
  4. DA'
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) A'

Explanation

XOR with 1 inverts the bit.

Q112
The carry output of a full adder with inputs A, B, C is:
  1. AA ⊕ B ⊕ C
  2. BABC
  3. CAB + BC + CA
  4. DA + B + C
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) AB + BC + CA

Explanation

Carry is 1 when at least two inputs are 1 (majority function).

Q113
The characteristic equation of a D flip-flop is:
  1. AQ(next) = Q'
  2. BQ(next) = D'
  3. CQ(next) = Q ⊕ D
  4. DQ(next) = D
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Q(next) = D

Explanation

Output follows the D input at the clock edge.

Q114
How many 4 : 1 multiplexers are needed to build a 16 : 1 multiplexer?
  1. A5
  2. B8
  3. C6
  4. D4
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 5

Explanation

4 MUXes at the first level + 1 to select among them = 5.

Q115
The dual of A + BC is:
  1. AA(B + C)
  2. BAB + C
  3. CA'(B' + C')
  4. DA + B + C
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) A(B + C)

Explanation

Swap + and · (and 0 and 1); variables stay unchanged.

Q116
FCFS scheduling: P1 (arrival 0, burst 4), P2 (arrival 1, burst 3), P3 (arrival 2, burst 1). Average turnaround time is:
  1. A4
  2. B6
  3. C4.67
  4. D5.33
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 5.33

Explanation

Completion 4, 7, 8 → TAT 4, 6, 6 → 16/3 ≈ 5.33.

Q117
Using Optimal page replacement with 3 frames, how many page faults occur for 7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2?
  1. A8
  2. B7
  3. C6
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 7

Explanation

Faults at 7, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and the later 0.

Q118
The three requirements of a correct critical-section solution are:
  1. AMutual exclusion, deadlock, starvation
  2. BMutual exclusion, progress, bounded waiting
  3. CFIFO, LRU, optimal
  4. DPaging, segmentation, swapping
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Mutual exclusion, progress, bounded waiting

Explanation

These must all be satisfied.

Q119
Peterson's solution to the critical-section problem works for:
  1. AOnly one process
  2. BTwo processes
  3. CExactly three processes
  4. DAny number of processes
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Two processes

Explanation

It is a classic two-process software solution.

Q120
Linux uses which type of kernel?
  1. ANanokernel
  2. BExokernel
  3. CMonolithic
  4. DMicrokernel
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Monolithic

Explanation

Linux is monolithic with loadable modules.

Q121
Which Unix system call creates a new process?
  1. Aexec()
  2. Bwait()
  3. Cfork()
  4. Dexit()
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) fork()

Explanation

fork() creates a child; exec() loads a new program into it.

Q122
Spooling is most commonly used for:
  1. ACache memory
  2. BKeyboard input
  3. CPrinters
  4. DCPU registers
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Printers

Explanation

Output is queued on disk before printing.

Q123
Disk of cylinders 0–199, head at 53 moving towards 199. Requests: 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67. Total head movement using SCAN is:
  1. A236
  2. B299
  3. C640
  4. D331
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 331

Explanation

53 → 199 = 146, then 199 → 14 = 185; total 331.

Q124
Which statement about algorithm properties is correct?
  1. AIt takes zero or more inputs and produces at least one output
  2. BIt may run forever
  3. CIt must be written in C
  4. DIt must take at least two inputs
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) It takes zero or more inputs and produces at least one output

Explanation

Input: zero or more; output: at least one.

Q125
Which program combines several object files into a single executable?
  1. ALoader
  2. BEditor
  3. CLinker
  4. DAssembler
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Linker

Explanation

The loader then places the executable in memory.

Q126
A randomised algorithm that always gives the correct answer but whose running time varies is called a:
  1. AMonte Carlo algorithm
  2. BHeuristic algorithm
  3. CGreedy algorithm
  4. DLas Vegas algorithm
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Las Vegas algorithm

Explanation

Monte Carlo runs in fixed time but may err.

Q127
What is the output? int a = 10, b = 3; printf("%d", a % b * 2);
  1. A0
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. D6
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 2

Explanation

% and * have equal precedence, left to right: (10 % 3) * 2 = 2.

Q128
What is the value of count after the loops? int count = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= 3; i++) for (int j = 1; j <= i; j++) count++;
  1. A4
  2. B6
  3. C9
  4. D3
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 6

Explanation

1 + 2 + 3 = 6.

Q129
What is the output? int k = 10; do { k++; } while (k < 5); printf("%d", k);
  1. AInfinite loop
  2. B10
  3. C5
  4. D11
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 11

Explanation

The do-while body runs once before the condition fails.

Q130
What is the value of strlen("Computer")?
  1. A8
  2. B9
  3. C7
  4. D10
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 8

Explanation

strlen does not count the null character.

Q131
What is the output? int arr[5] = {1, 2}; printf("%d", arr[3]);
  1. A0
  2. BGarbage value
  3. C2
  4. DCompile error
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 0

Explanation

Remaining elements of a partially initialised array are 0.

Q132
What is the output? void swap(int a, int b) { int t = a; a = b; b = t; } int x = 1, y = 2; swap(x, y); printf("%d %d", x, y);
  1. A2 1
  2. B2 2
  3. C1 1
  4. D1 2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 1 2

Explanation

Call by value swaps only the local copies.

Q133
What is the output? enum {A, B = 5, C}; printf("%d", C);
  1. A5
  2. B3
  3. C2
  4. D6
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 6

Explanation

After B = 5, C gets the next value, 6.

Q134
In nested loops, a break statement in the inner loop:
  1. AExits only the inner loop
  2. BRestarts the outer loop from the beginning
  3. CExits the program
  4. DExits all loops
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Exits only the inner loop

Explanation

break leaves only the innermost enclosing loop or switch.

Q135
In C++, members of a struct are by default:
  1. Aprotected
  2. Bstatic
  3. Cpublic
  4. Dprivate
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) public

Explanation

struct defaults to public; class to private.

Q136
Which operator CANNOT be overloaded in C++?
  1. A==
  2. B[]
  3. C::
  4. D+
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) ::

Explanation

::, ., .*, ?: and sizeof cannot be overloaded.

Q137
In C++, memory allocated with new should be released using:
  1. Aremove
  2. Bdispose
  3. Cdelete
  4. Dfree
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) delete

Explanation

new/delete in C++; malloc/free in C.

Q138
In Java, the keyword super is used to:
  1. ARefer to the immediate parent class
  2. BCreate a static method
  3. CRefer to the current object
  4. DStop inheritance
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Refer to the immediate parent class

Explanation

this refers to the current object.

Q139
In Java, the root class of all exceptions and errors is:
  1. AException
  2. BRuntimeException
  3. CError
  4. DThrowable
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Throwable

Explanation

Exception and Error both extend Throwable.

Q140
Which Java class creates a mutable sequence of characters?
  1. AStringBuilder
  2. BMath
  3. CString
  4. DCharacter
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) StringBuilder

Explanation

String objects are immutable.

Q141
What is the output of the Java code? int x = 5; System.out.println(x++ + ++x);
  1. A11
  2. B12
  3. C13
  4. D10
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 12

Explanation

Java evaluates left to right: 5 (x becomes 6) + 7 = 12.

Q142
What is the output? a = [1, 2, 3] b = a b.append(4) print(a)
  1. A[1, 2, 3]
  2. B[1, 2, 3, 4]
  3. C[4]
  4. DError
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) [1, 2, 3, 4]

Explanation

b and a refer to the same list object.

Q143
Which Python data type is immutable?
  1. Atuple
  2. Bset
  3. Cdict
  4. Dlist
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) tuple

Explanation

Tuples cannot be changed after creation.

Q144
By default, df.head() in pandas returns how many rows?
  1. A1
  2. B5
  3. CAll rows
  4. D10
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 5

Explanation

head(n) defaults to n = 5.

Q145
Evaluate the postfix expression: 5 3 2 * + 4 −
  1. A3
  2. B12
  3. C7
  4. D15
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 7

Explanation

3 * 2 = 6; 5 + 6 = 11; 11 − 4 = 7.

Q146
A full binary tree has 10 internal nodes. How many leaf nodes does it have?
  1. A10
  2. B20
  3. C11
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 11

Explanation

In a full binary tree, leaves = internal nodes + 1.

Q147
Dijkstra's algorithm solves the:
  1. AAll-pairs shortest path problem
  2. BTravelling salesman problem
  3. CSingle-source shortest path problem
  4. DMinimum spanning tree problem
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Single-source shortest path problem

Explanation

It needs non-negative edge weights.

Q148
The best-case time complexity of bubble sort (with a swap flag) is:
  1. AO(n^2)
  2. BO(n log n)
  3. CO(n)
  4. DO(log n)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) O(n)

Explanation

One pass with no swaps on an already sorted array.

Q149
Hash table of size 10, h(k) = k mod 10, linear probing. Keys 12, 22, 32 are inserted in order. Where is 32 stored?
  1. AIndex 4
  2. BIndex 5
  3. CIndex 2
  4. DIndex 3
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Index 4

Explanation

12 → 2; 22 → 3 (2 full); 32 → 4 (2 and 3 full).

Q150
In a max-heap, the root node contains:
  1. AThe smallest element
  2. BThe largest element
  3. CA random element
  4. DThe median
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) The largest element

Explanation

Every parent is ≥ its children.

Q151
Depth First Search (DFS) is implemented using a:
  1. AQueue
  2. BPriority queue
  3. CStack
  4. DHash table
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Stack

Explanation

BFS uses a queue.

Q152
Kruskal's algorithm is used to find a:
  1. AMinimum spanning tree
  2. BStrongly connected component
  3. CTopological order
  4. DShortest path from one source
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Minimum spanning tree

Explanation

It picks the smallest edges that don't form a cycle.

Q153
In relational algebra, which operation selects columns?
  1. AProjection (π)
  2. BJoin (⋈)
  3. CSelection (σ)
  4. DUnion (∪)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Projection (π)

Explanation

Selection picks rows; projection picks columns.

Q154
By default, ORDER BY sorts results in:
  1. AInsertion order
  2. BAscending order
  3. CRandom order
  4. DDescending order
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Ascending order

Explanation

ASC is the default; use DESC for descending.

Q155
Which condition selects names starting with the letter A?
  1. Aname LIKE 'A%'
  2. Bname IN ('A')
  3. Cname LIKE '%A'
  4. Dname = 'A*'
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) name LIKE 'A%'

Explanation

% matches any sequence of characters.

Q156
Which join returns all rows of the left table and matching rows of the right table?
  1. ARIGHT OUTER JOIN
  2. BINNER JOIN
  3. CLEFT OUTER JOIN
  4. DCROSS JOIN
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) LEFT OUTER JOIN

Explanation

Non-matching right-side values become NULL.

Q157
For R(A, B, C, D) with FDs A → B and B → C, the closure A+ is:
  1. A{A, B, C}
  2. B{A}
  3. C{A, B}
  4. D{A, B, C, D}
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) {A, B, C}

Explanation

A gives B, B gives C; D is not derivable.

Q158
Two-Phase Locking (2PL) guarantees:
  1. AConflict serializability
  2. BDeadlock freedom
  3. CNo starvation
  4. DFaster queries
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Conflict serializability

Explanation

2PL ensures serializability but deadlocks can still occur.

Q159
Which ACID property ensures that committed changes survive a system crash?
  1. AAtomicity
  2. BDurability
  3. CIsolation
  4. DConsistency
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Durability

Explanation

Logs and recovery provide durability.

Q160
The ability to change the physical schema without changing the logical schema is called:
  1. AData integrity
  2. BLogical data independence
  3. CData redundancy
  4. DPhysical data independence
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Physical data independence

Explanation

Logical independence is the harder one to achieve.

Q161
The data unit (PDU) at the transport layer is called a:
  1. ASegment
  2. BPacket
  3. CFrame
  4. DBit
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Segment

Explanation

Transport – segment; network – packet; data link – frame.

Q162
What is the network address of 172.16.45.10/20?
  1. A172.16.45.0
  2. B172.16.0.0
  3. C172.16.32.0
  4. D172.16.40.0
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 172.16.32.0

Explanation

/20 masks the third octet with 240: 45 AND 240 = 32.

Q163
FTP uses which ports?
  1. A20 and 21
  2. B25 and 110
  3. C22 and 23
  4. D80 and 443
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 20 and 21

Explanation

20 for data, 21 for control.

Q164
Which protocol automatically assigns IP addresses to hosts?
  1. ADHCP
  2. BSNMP
  3. CDNS
  4. DARP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) DHCP

Explanation

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.

Q165
RIP is an example of which type of routing protocol?
  1. ADistance vector
  2. BStatic routing
  3. CLink state
  4. DPath vector
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Distance vector

Explanation

RIP uses hop count; OSPF is link state.

Q166
A router operates at which OSI layer?
  1. APhysical
  2. BNetwork
  3. CData link
  4. DTransport
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Network

Explanation

Routers forward packets using IP addresses.

Q167
Which of the following is a symmetric-key encryption algorithm?
  1. AECC
  2. BDiffie–Hellman
  3. CAES
  4. DRSA
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) AES

Explanation

AES uses one shared key for both encryption and decryption.

Q168
Dialog control and synchronisation are functions of which OSI layer?
  1. APresentation
  2. BTransport
  3. CApplication
  4. DSession
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Session

Explanation

The session layer manages sessions between applications.

Q169
IPv4 Class D addresses (224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255) are used for:
  1. AExperimental use
  2. BUnicasting
  3. CMulticasting
  4. DBroadcasting
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Multicasting

Explanation

Class E is reserved for experimental use.

Q170
CSMA/CD is the access method used in:
  1. AToken Ring
  2. BEthernet
  3. CBluetooth
  4. DWi-Fi (802.11)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Ethernet

Explanation

Wi-Fi uses CSMA/CA.

Q171
A single parity bit can:
  1. ADetect all burst errors
  2. BCorrect single-bit errors
  3. CCorrect burst errors
  4. DDetect single-bit errors
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Detect single-bit errors

Explanation

Hamming code can correct single-bit errors.

Q172
If the method attribute is not specified in an HTML form, the default method is:
  1. APUT
  2. BSEND
  3. CPOST
  4. DGET
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) GET

Explanation

GET is the default.

Q173
Which CSS property controls the space between content and border?
  1. Aborder-gap
  2. Bspacing
  3. Cmargin
  4. Dpadding
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) padding

Explanation

Margin is the space outside the border.

Q174
Which JavaScript keyword declares a block-scoped variable that can be reassigned?
  1. Avar
  2. Blet
  3. Cconst
  4. Dstatic
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) let

Explanation

var is function-scoped; const cannot be reassigned.

Q175
Which HTML tag defines a table row?
  1. A<td>
  2. B<th>
  3. C<tr>
  4. D<row>
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) <tr>

Explanation

tr = row; td = data cell; th = header cell.

Q176
What does parseInt("12px") return in JavaScript?
  1. ANaN
  2. B"12"
  3. CError
  4. D12
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 12

Explanation

parseInt reads leading digits and stops at the first non-digit.

Q177
Which statement about XML is TRUE?
  1. AXML tags need not be closed
  2. BXML has fixed tags
  3. CXML is case-sensitive
  4. DXML cannot store data
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) XML is case-sensitive

Explanation

<Name> and <name> are different tags in XML.

Q178
Cookies are stored on the:
  1. ADNS server
  2. BRouter
  3. CWeb server
  4. DClient (browser)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Client (browser)

Explanation

Sessions are usually stored on the server.

Q179
Which model is most suitable when user requirements are unclear at the start?
  1. AWaterfall model
  2. BBig-bang model
  3. CV-model
  4. DPrototyping model
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Prototyping model

Explanation

A prototype helps clarify requirements.

Q180
'Are we building the product right?' refers to:
  1. AMaintenance
  2. BValidation
  3. CVerification
  4. DCertification
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Verification

Explanation

Validation asks 'Are we building the right product?'

Q181
In top-down integration testing, missing lower-level modules are replaced by:
  1. AStubs
  2. BDrivers
  3. CMocks of the main module
  4. DTest oracles
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Correct answer: (A) Stubs

Explanation

Drivers are used in bottom-up integration.

Q182
Which type of coupling is the worst?
  1. AData coupling
  2. BStamp coupling
  3. CMessage coupling
  4. DContent coupling
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Correct answer: (D) Content coupling

Explanation

One module directly modifies another's internals.

Q183
The COCOMO model was developed by:
  1. AIan Sommerville
  2. BBarry Boehm
  3. CFred Brooks
  4. DWatts Humphrey
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Correct answer: (B) Barry Boehm

Explanation

COCOMO = Constructive Cost Model (1981).

Q184
Which UML diagram shows object interactions arranged in time order?
  1. AClass diagram
  2. BUse case diagram
  3. CDeployment diagram
  4. DSequence diagram
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Correct answer: (D) Sequence diagram

Explanation

It shows messages along lifelines.

Q185
Fixing bugs reported after delivery is which type of maintenance?
  1. APerfective
  2. BPreventive
  3. CAdaptive
  4. DCorrective
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Correct answer: (D) Corrective

Explanation

Adaptive – new environment; perfective – new features.

Q186
The DDA line-drawing algorithm mainly uses:
  1. ARecursion
  2. BFloating-point arithmetic
  3. CPolar coordinates
  4. DOnly integer arithmetic
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Correct answer: (B) Floating-point arithmetic

Explanation

Bresenham's algorithm avoids floating point.

Q187
The aspect ratio of a display is the ratio of its:
  1. AHeight to depth
  2. BWidth to height
  3. CColours to pixels
  4. DPixels to inches
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Correct answer: (B) Width to height

Explanation

For example, 16:9.

Q188
Homogeneous coordinates are used in 2D graphics so that:
  1. ALines can be clipped
  2. BImages can be compressed
  3. CColours can be mixed
  4. DTranslation can be done by matrix multiplication
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Correct answer: (D) Translation can be done by matrix multiplication

Explanation

All transformations become 3 × 3 matrix multiplications.

Q189
Blockchain technology is best described as:
  1. AA centralised database
  2. BA distributed, tamper-resistant ledger
  3. CA programming language
  4. DA type of computer virus
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Correct answer: (B) A distributed, tamper-resistant ledger

Explanation

Blocks are linked by cryptographic hashes.

Q190
Software whose source code is freely available to use, modify and redistribute is called:
  1. AProprietary software
  2. BOpen-source software
  3. CFreeware with locked code
  4. DShareware
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Correct answer: (B) Open-source software

Explanation

Examples: Linux, LibreOffice (often under GPL).

Teaching Methodology 10 questions

Q191
According to Piaget, object permanence develops in which stage?
  1. AConcrete operational
  2. BFormal operational
  3. CSensorimotor
  4. DPre-operational
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Correct answer: (C) Sensorimotor

Explanation

Sensorimotor stage: birth to about 2 years.

Q192
The lowest level of Bloom's revised taxonomy is:
  1. AUnderstanding
  2. BApplying
  3. CRemembering
  4. DCreating
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Correct answer: (C) Remembering

Explanation

It starts with remembering and ends with creating.

Q193
Summative assessment is conducted:
  1. AAt the end of a unit or course
  2. BOnly for slow learners
  3. CContinuously during each lesson
  4. DBefore teaching begins
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Correct answer: (A) At the end of a unit or course

Explanation

It is assessment of learning.

Q194
Temporary support given to a learner and gradually withdrawn is called:
  1. AReinforcement
  2. BScaffolding
  3. CConditioning
  4. DChunking
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Correct answer: (B) Scaffolding

Explanation

Linked to Vygotsky and Bruner.

Q195
'Learning by doing' is associated with:
  1. AErik Erikson
  2. BIvan Pavlov
  3. CJohn Dewey
  4. DJean Piaget
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Correct answer: (C) John Dewey

Explanation

Dewey championed experiential, activity-based learning.

Q196
B.F. Skinner is associated with:
  1. AOperant conditioning
  2. BSocial learning
  3. CClassical conditioning
  4. DInsight learning
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Correct answer: (A) Operant conditioning

Explanation

Pavlov – classical; Kohler – insight; Bandura – social.

Q197
Inclusive education means:
  1. ASeparate schools for each disability
  2. BEducation only for gifted students
  3. CAll learners, including those with disabilities, learn together in regular schools
  4. DHome schooling for all
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Correct answer: (C) All learners, including those with disabilities, learn together in regular schools

Explanation

schools It values diversity and provides needed support.

Q198
NEP 2020 recommends introducing coding to students from:
  1. AClass 1
  2. BClass 9
  3. CClass 11
  4. DClass 6
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Correct answer: (D) Class 6

Explanation

Coding is to be introduced from the middle stage (Class 6).

Q199
The Heuristic method of teaching was advocated by:
  1. AW.H. Kilpatrick
  2. BMaria Montessori
  3. CHerbart
  4. DH.E. Armstrong
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Correct answer: (D) H.E. Armstrong

Explanation

Learners discover answers themselves, like researchers.

Q200
A scoring guide that describes performance levels for each criterion is called a:
  1. ASyllabus
  2. BLesson plan
  3. CBlueprint
  4. DRubric
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Correct answer: (D) Rubric

Explanation

Rubrics make assessment transparent and consistent.

Practise it as a real test

Reading answers is not the same as solving under time pressure. Attempt DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 3 online with the real 120-minute timer and marking scheme to get your score and all-India rank, or browse the other tests in the DSSSB TGT Computer Science Mock Test & Previous Year Papers.