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DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 4

All 200 questions of DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 4 with the correct answer and a solution. Read them free on UTpaper, or attempt the paper as a timed online test.

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General Awareness 20 questions

Q1
Legislative Assembly elections were held in 2026 in which of the following States/UT?
  1. AAssam, Kerala, Punjab, West Bengal and Goa
  2. BAssam, Bihar, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Delhi
  3. CAssam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry
  4. DKerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha
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Correct answer: (C) Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry

Q2
The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026 proposes to establish which body to strengthen the independence and administration of tribunals?
  1. ANational Tribunals Commission
  2. BTribunal Appellate Authority
  3. CNational Judicial Appointments Commission
  4. DCentral Tribunals Board
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Correct answer: (A) National Tribunals Commission

Q3
On 6 August 2026, the Union Cabinet approved GOBARdhan as which national scheme?
  1. ANational Biogas Mission
  2. BWaste to Wealth Scheme
  3. CNational Organic Manure Scheme
  4. DNational Circular Bioenergy Scheme
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Correct answer: (D) National Circular Bioenergy Scheme

Q4
Under the Nuclear Energy Mission, India aims to achieve how much nuclear power capacity by 2047?
  1. A50 GW
  2. B500 GW
  3. C100 GW
  4. D22 GW
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Correct answer: (C) 100 GW

Q5
The 'Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global', released by NITI Aayog in July 2026, is based on which three-pillar framework?
  1. AResearch, Regulation and Reach
  2. BAccess, Awareness and Affordability
  3. CStandardisation, Certification and Promotion
  4. DAvailability, Acceptability and
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Correct answer: (D) Availability, Acceptability and

Q6
According to the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2026, which country was the most impacted by terrorism?
  1. AAfghanistan
  2. BPakistan
  3. CSyria
  4. DBurkina Faso
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Pakistan

Q7
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the World Trade Organization was held in March 2026 in which country?
  1. AKenya
  2. BUnited Arab Emirates
  3. CCameroon
  4. DSwitzerland
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Correct answer: (C) Cameroon

Q8
The India–Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), which entered into force on 1 June 2026, was signed in which city?
  1. ADubai
  2. BNew Delhi
  3. CMuscat
  4. DSalalah
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Correct answer: (C) Muscat

Q9
The 16th edition of the Joint Special Forces Exercise 'Vajra Prahar' was conducted in 2026 between India and:
  1. AUzbekistan
  2. BUnited States
  3. CMongolia
  4. DFrance
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Correct answer: (B) United States

Q10
Which international credit-rating agency upgraded India's long-term issuer ratings from 'BBB+' to 'A−' in 2026?
  1. AJapan Credit Rating Agency
  2. BMoody's
  3. CS&P Global Ratings
  4. DFitch Ratings
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Correct answer: (A) Japan Credit Rating Agency

Q11
Which institution provides concessional refinance to eligible Rural Financial Institutions in India?
  1. ANational Housing Bank
  2. BNABARD
  3. CEXIM Bank
  4. DSIDBI
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Correct answer: (B) NABARD

Q12
According to the IMF's World Economic Outlook Update (July 2026), India's projected real GDP growth for FY 2026–27 is:
  1. A5.8%
  2. B6.4%
  3. C7.5%
  4. D7.0%
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Correct answer: (B) 6.4%

Q13
At the Milano Cortina 2026 Winter Olympics, who became the first athlete to win six gold medals at a single Olympic Winter Games?
  1. AMarit Bjørgen
  2. BMikaela Shiffrin
  3. CEric Heiden
  4. DJohannes Høsflot Klæbo
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Correct answer: (D) Johannes Høsflot Klæbo

Q14
Who became India's first-ever Commonwealth Games gold medallist in judo by winning the women's 48 kg title in 2026?
  1. AAsmita Dey
  2. BLinthoi Chanambam
  3. CSushila Devi
  4. DTulika Maan
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Correct answer: (A) Asmita Dey

Q15
Who was named Laureus World Sportsman of the Year at the 2026 Laureus World Sports Awards held in Madrid?
  1. AMondo Duplantis
  2. BCarlos Alcaraz
  3. CJannik Sinner
  4. DNovak Djokovic
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Correct answer: (B) Carlos Alcaraz

Q16
Professor Madhav Gadgil, who passed away in January 2026, chaired which expert committee that submitted a landmark report in 2011?
  1. ANational Green Tribunal Expert Committee
  2. BKasturirangan Committee
  3. CWestern Ghats Ecology Expert Panel
  4. DNational Biodiversity Authority
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Correct answer: (C) Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel

Q17
Which statutory body approved a phased transition to cleaner Light Goods Vehicles (LGVs) in Delhi-NCR in August 2026?
  1. ANational Green Tribunal
  2. BMinistry of Road Transport and Highways
  3. CCentral Pollution Control Board
  4. DCommission for Air Quality Management
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Correct answer: (D) Commission for Air Quality Management

Q18
Which country hosted the official World Environment Day celebrations on 5 June 2026?
  1. AAzerbaijan
  2. BRepublic of Korea
  3. CBrazil
  4. DSaudi Arabia
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Correct answer: (A) Azerbaijan

Q19
National Space Day, observed on 23 August, commemorates:
  1. ALaunch of India's first satellite Aryabhata
  2. BFirst crewed Gaganyaan flight
  3. CMangalyaan's entry into Mars orbit
  4. DChandrayaan-3's Vikram lander
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Correct answer: (D) Chandrayaan-3's Vikram lander

Q20
Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?
  1. AArticle 75(3)
  2. BArticle 78
  3. CArticle 75(1)
  4. DArticle 74(1)
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Correct answer: (A) Article 75(3)

General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability 20 questions

Q21
Find the missing number: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49
  1. A36
  2. B30
  3. C35
  4. D42
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Correct answer: (A) 36

Explanation

Squares of natural numbers: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6² = 36, 7².

Q22
Find the next term: AC, FH, KM, PR, ?
  1. AVX
  2. BTV
  3. CUX
  4. DUW
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Correct answer: (D) UW

Explanation

Each letter moves +5: P→U, R→W → UW.

Q23
If CAT is written as XZG, how is DOG written in that code?
  1. AWKT
  2. BVLT
  3. CWLS
  4. DWLT
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Correct answer: (D) WLT

Explanation

Opposite letters (A↔Z, B↔Y ...): D→W, O→L, G→T → WLT.

Q24
If LIGHT is coded as 56, how is NIGHT coded?
  1. A58
  2. B60
  3. C59
  4. D57
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Correct answer: (A) 58

Explanation

Sum of positions: L12+I9+G7+H8+T20=56. NIGHT: 14+9+7+8+20 = 58.

Q25
Find the odd one out: January, March, May, June
  1. AMarch
  2. BJanuary
  3. CMay
  4. DJune
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Correct answer: (D) June

Explanation

January, March and May have 31 days; June has 30 days.

Q26
Find the odd one out: 13, 17, 19, 21
  1. A17
  2. B13
  3. C19
  4. D21
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Correct answer: (D) 21

Explanation

13, 17, 19 are prime; 21 = 3 × 7 is composite.

Q27
Bird : Nest :: Bee : ?
  1. ASting
  2. BHoney
  3. CFlower
  4. DHive
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Correct answer: (D) Hive

Explanation

A bird lives in a nest; a bee lives in a hive (dwelling relation).

Q28
5 : 30 :: 7 : ?
  1. A63
  2. B42
  3. C49
  4. D56
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Correct answer: (D) 56

Explanation

n : n² + n → 25 + 5 = 30; 49 + 7 = 56.

Q29
KMO : LNP :: QSU : ?
  1. ARTV
  2. BSTV
  3. CRTW
  4. DRUV
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Correct answer: (A) RTV

Explanation

Each letter +1: Q→R, S→T, U→V → RTV.

Q30
If '×' means '+', '÷' means '−', '+' means '×' and '−' means '÷', then 6 × 4 ÷ 8 + 2 − 4 = ?
  1. A8
  2. B6
  3. C4
  4. D10
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Correct answer: (B) 6

Explanation

6 + 4 − 8 × 2 ÷ 4 = 6 + 4 − 4 = 6.

Q31
If 8 ◊ 4 = 6 and 12 ◊ 6 = 9, then 20 ◊ 10 = ?
  1. A30
  2. B15
  3. C12
  4. D18
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Correct answer: (B) 15

Explanation

a ◊ b = (a + b) ÷ 2 → 12÷2=6, 18÷2=9, so 30 ÷ 2 = 15.

Q32
In a row of persons, A is 8th from the left end and 20th from the right end. How many persons are there in the row?
  1. A26
  2. B28
  3. C29
  4. D27
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Correct answer: (D) 27

Explanation

Total = 8 + 20 − 1 = 27.

Q33
A is older than B. C is younger than D but older than A. E is the youngest. Who is the second oldest?
  1. AA
  2. BC
  3. CB
  4. DD
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Correct answer: (B) C

Explanation

D > C > A > B > E → C is second oldest.

Q34
P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the son of S. How is S related to P?
  1. AWife
  2. BSister
  3. CMother
  4. DDaughter
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Correct answer: (A) Wife

Explanation

Q and R are children of P; S is the mother of R → S is P's wife.

Q35
If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West, then what will West become?
  1. ASouth-West
  2. BNorth-East
  3. CSouth-East
  4. DNorth-West
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Correct answer: (C) South-East

Explanation

Every direction rotates 135° anticlockwise: West → South-East.

Q36
Five books A, B, C, D and E are kept one above another. C is at the top. E is just below C. B is above D. A is at the bottom. Which book is in the middle?
  1. AB
  2. BC
  3. CE
  4. DD
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Correct answer: (A) B

Explanation

Top to bottom: C, E, B, D, A → B is in the middle.

Q37
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sit around a circular table facing the centre. P sits opposite S. Q sits immediately to the left of P. R sits opposite Q. T is not a neighbour of S. Who sits opposite U?
  1. AQ
  2. BR
  3. CT
  4. DP
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Correct answer: (C) T

Explanation

P–S and Q–R are opposite pairs; the remaining pair of opposite seats is T–U, so T sits opposite U.

Q38
Statement: Should India ban all imports? Arguments: I. No, international trade benefits the economy and consumers. II. Yes, it will make India self-reliant overnight.
  1. AOnly I is strong
  2. BOnly II is strong
  3. CBoth are strong
  4. DNeither is strong
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Correct answer: (A) Only I is strong

Explanation

I gives a valid economic reason. II is exaggerated ('overnight') and unrealistic → only I is strong.

Q39
Statements: No pen is a pencil. All pencils are erasers. Conclusions: I. Some erasers are not pens. II. No eraser is a pen.
  1. AOnly II follows
  2. BOnly I follows
  3. CBoth follow
  4. DNeither follows
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Correct answer: (B) Only I follows

Explanation

Erasers that are pencils cannot be pens → some erasers are not pens (I). Other erasers may be pens → II does not follow.

Q40
Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among: Males, Fathers, Doctors?
  1. AA small circle inside a big circle, with a third circle cutting both
  2. BThree separate circles, none overlapping
  3. CThree concentric circles, one inside the other
  4. DTwo separate small circles inside one big circle
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Correct answer: (A) A small circle inside a big circle, with a third circle cutting both

Explanation

(A) Small circle inside big one; third circle cuts both. All fathers are males (small circle inside big one); doctors can be males/fathers or not → third circle cuts both.

Arithmetical & Numerical Ability 20 questions

Q41
Find the value of: 999 × 999 + 999
  1. A1000000
  2. B998001
  3. C999000
  4. D999999
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Correct answer: (C) 999000

Q42
If √x ÷ √441 = 0.02, then the value of x is:
  1. A0.1764
  2. B0.01764
  3. C1.764
  4. D17.64
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Correct answer: (A) 0.1764

Q43
What is the least number that must be added to 2055 to make it a perfect square?
  1. A30
  2. B25
  3. C71
  4. D61
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Correct answer: (D) 61

Q44
If 20% of A = 30% of B = 1/6 of C, then A : B : C is:
  1. A18 : 10 : 15
  2. B3 : 2 : 6
  3. C15 : 10 : 18
  4. D10 : 15 : 18
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Correct answer: (C) 15 : 10 : 18

Q45
A man buys oranges at 10 for ₹ 25 and sells them at 8 for ₹ 25. His gain percent is:
  1. A30%
  2. B20%
  3. C15%
  4. D25%
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Correct answer: (D) 25%

Q46
The marked price of an article is ₹ 1250. After two successive discounts of 10% and x%, it is sold for ₹ 900. The value of x is:
  1. A18
  2. B20
  3. C25
  4. D15
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Correct answer: (B) 20

Q47
A man sold two watches for ₹ 990 each. On one he gained 10% and on the other he lost 10%. His overall gain or loss percent is:
  1. A2% loss
  2. B1% gain
  3. C1% loss
  4. DNo profit no loss
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Correct answer: (C) 1% loss

Q48
A policeman spots a thief at a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running at 10 km/h and the policeman chases him at 12 km/h. How far will the thief have run before he is caught?
  1. A600 m
  2. B800 m
  3. C1000 m
  4. D1200 m
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Correct answer: (C) 1000 m

Q49
A train running at 54 km/h crosses a man walking at 6 km/h in the same direction in 18 seconds. The length of the train is:
  1. A300 m
  2. B240 m
  3. C216 m
  4. D270 m
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Correct answer: (B) 240 m

Q50
A boat goes 24 km upstream in 6 hours and 20 km downstream in 4 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is:
  1. A4.5 km/h
  2. B5 km/h
  3. C4 km/h
  4. D0.5 km/h
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Correct answer: (A) 4.5 km/h

Q51
A bag contains ₹ 216 in coins of ₹ 1, 50 paise and 25 paise in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The number of 50 paise coins is:
  1. A192
  2. B144
  3. C72
  4. D96
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Correct answer: (B) 144

Q52
The average of 8 numbers is 20. If each number is multiplied by 3 and then 5 is added to each, the new average is:
  1. A60
  2. B65
  3. C68
  4. D63
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Correct answer: (B) 65

Q53
A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years at compound interest. In how many years will it become 8 times?
  1. A20 years
  2. B40 years
  3. C25 years
  4. D15 years
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Correct answer: (D) 15 years

Q54
A is twice as efficient as B. Together they can finish a work in 18 days. A alone can finish it in:
  1. A27 days
  2. B24 days
  3. C36 days
  4. D54 days
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Correct answer: (A) 27 days

Q55
A solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into a cylinder of radius 4 cm. The height of the cylinder is:
  1. A24 cm
  2. B18 cm
  3. C16 cm
  4. D12 cm
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Correct answer: (B) 18 cm

Q56
The perimeter of a rectangle is 46 cm and its diagonal is 17 cm. The area of the rectangle is:
  1. A136 cm²
  2. B126 cm²
  3. C120 cm²
  4. D112 cm²
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Correct answer: (C) 120 cm²

Q57
A, B and C enter into a partnership. A invests 1/3 of the capital for 1/4 of the time, B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/2 of the time, and C invests the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of ₹ 4500, B's share is:
  1. A₹ 600
  2. B₹ 1200
  3. C₹ 3000
  4. D₹ 900
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Correct answer: (D) ₹ 900

Q58
How many times do the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock coincide in a day (24 hours)?
  1. A22
  2. B24
  3. C48
  4. D44
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Correct answer: (A) 22

Q59
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Monthly expenditure of a family (Total = ₹ 36,000): Food ₹12,000; Rent ₹9,000; Education ₹6,000; Transport ₹4,500; Others ₹4,500 The expenditure on Rent is what percent of the total expenditure?
  1. A20%
  2. B22.5%
  3. C30%
  4. D25%
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Correct answer: (D) 25%

Q60
Directions: Study the following data carefully and answer the question. Monthly expenditure of a family (Total = ₹ 36,000): Food ₹12,000; Rent ₹9,000; Education ₹6,000; Transport ₹4,500; Others ₹4,500 If the data is shown as a pie chart, the central angle for Education is:
  1. A60°
  2. B54°
  3. C72°
  4. D45°
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Correct answer: (A) 60°

Hindi Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q61
'आस्तीन का साँप' मुहावरे का अर्थ है —
  1. Aकमीज़ में साँप
  2. Bज़हरीला जीव
  3. Cबहादुर व्यक्ति
  4. Dविश्वासघाती मित्र
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Correct answer: (D) विश्वासघाती मित्र

Explanation

साथ रहकर धोखा देने वाला। TGT 2024 PYQ।

Q62
'अधजल गगरी छलकत जाय' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है —
  1. Aआधा काम करना
  2. Bपानी व्यर्थ बहाना
  3. Cजल्दबाज़ी करना
  4. Dकम ज्ञान वाला अधिक दिखावा करता है
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Correct answer: (D) कम ज्ञान वाला अधिक दिखावा करता है

Explanation

ओछा व्यक्ति अधिक इतराता/दिखावा करता है।

Q63
'जिसमें बाण रखे जाते हैं' — वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द
  1. Aतूणीर
  2. Bशरासन
  3. Cकृपाण
  4. Dधनुष
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) तूणीर

Explanation

तूणीर = तरकश। (शरासन = धनुष)। TGT 2025 PYQ।

Q64
'सूर्य' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है —
  1. Aदिनकर
  2. Bरवि
  3. Cमयंक
  4. Dभास्कर
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Correct answer: (C) मयंक

Explanation

मयंक = चंद्रमा।

Q65
'ऐहिक' का विलोम है —
  1. Aसांसारिक
  2. Bभौतिक
  3. Cलौकिक
  4. Dपारलौकिक
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Correct answer: (D) पारलौकिक

Explanation

ऐहिक (इस लोक का) ↔ पारलौकिक। TGT PYQ।

Q66
'आलस' का तत्सम रूप है —
  1. Aआलसता
  2. Bआलसी
  3. Cआलस्य
  4. Dअलसाना
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Correct answer: (C) आलस्य

Explanation

आलस (तद्भव) ← आलस्य (तत्सम)। TGT 2023 PYQ।

Q67
'महेश्वर' का सही संधि-विच्छेद है —
  1. Aमहा + ईश्वर
  2. Bमहि + ईश्वर
  3. Cमहे + श्वर
  4. Dमह + ईश्वर
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Correct answer: (A) महा + ईश्वर

Explanation

आ + ई = ए (गुण संधि) → महा + ईश्वर।

Q68
'नवरत्न' में समास है —
  1. Aद्वंद्व
  2. Bअव्ययीभाव
  3. Cद्विगु
  4. Dबहुव्रीहि
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Correct answer: (C) द्विगु

Explanation

पहला पद संख्या (नव) + समूह = द्विगु।

Q69
'सुरेश ___ अपनी गलती मान ली।' — रिक्त स्थान में उचित परसर्ग
  1. Aको
  2. Bने
  3. Cसे
  4. Dका
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Correct answer: (B) ने

Explanation

सकर्मक भूतकालिक क्रिया के कर्ता के साथ 'ने'।

Q70
अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है —
  1. Aप्रज्वलित
  2. Bअत्याधिक
  3. Cनिरीक्षण
  4. Dउल्लंघन
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Correct answer: (B) अत्याधिक

Explanation

शुद्ध रूप: अत्यधिक (अति + अधिक)।

Q71
शुद्ध वाक्य चुनिए —
  1. Aहमारे यहाँ नवयुवकों की शिक्षा की अच्छी व्यवस्था है।
  2. Bवह केवल मात्र दो रुपये लाया।
  3. Cआज कई अनेक लोग आए।
  4. Dआपस में मिलकर परस्पर सहयोग करो।
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) हमारे यहाँ नवयुवकों की शिक्षा की अच्छी व्यवस्था है।

Explanation

बाकी विकल्पों में पुनरुक्ति दोष (आपस में-परस्पर, कई-अनेक, केवल-मात्र)। TGT 2021 PYQ आधारित।

Q72
वाक्यांशों का सही क्रम चुनिए — (A) पौधे लगाने चाहिए (B) पर्यावरण की रक्षा के लिए (C) हम सबको (D) अधिक से अधिक
  1. AB C D A
  2. BC B A D
  3. CA C D B
  4. DD A B C
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Correct answer: (A) B C D A

Explanation

पर्यावरण की रक्षा के लिए हम सबको अधिक से अधिक पौधे लगाने चाहिए।

Q73
'मेघ आए बड़े बन-ठन के सँवर के' में अलंकार है —
  1. Aअनुप्रास
  2. Bउपमा
  3. Cमानवीकरण
  4. Dयमक
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Correct answer: (C) मानवीकरण

Explanation

बादलों को सज-धज कर आने वाले मेहमान की तरह दिखाया — मानवीकरण।

Q74
'मैं यह काम अपने आप कर लूँगा।' में 'अपने आप' कौन-सा सर्वनाम है?
  1. Aनिजवाचक
  2. Bपुरुषवाचक
  3. Cसंबंधवाचक
  4. Dनिश्चयवाचक
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Correct answer: (A) निजवाचक

Explanation

'आप / अपने आप / स्वयं' (स्वयं के लिए) = निजवाचक।

Q75
'चेहरा हमारे विचारों का ___ है।'
  1. Aदर्पण
  2. Bअसत्य
  3. Cमन
  4. Dउल्लंघन
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Correct answer: (A) दर्पण

Explanation

चेहरा विचारों को दिखाता है — दर्पण। TGT 2021 PYQ।

Q76
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन भारतीय स्वतंत्रता संग्राम का एक निर्णायक मोड़ था। 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में कांग्रेस के अधिवेशन में यह प्रस्ताव पारित हुआ और महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया। अगले ही दिन अंग्रेज़ सरकार ने गांधीजी सहित कांग्रेस के लगभग सभी बड़े नेताओं को गिरफ़्तार कर लिया। नेतृत्व के अभाव में भी आंदोलन रुका नहीं, बल्कि जनता ने स्वयं इसकी बागडोर सँभाल ली। देश के अनेक भागों में हड़तालें हुईं, सरकारी दफ़्तरों और रेल-लाइनों को निशाना बनाया गया। कुछ स्थानों पर लोगों ने अपनी समानांतर सरकारें भी स्थापित कर लीं। अरुणा आसफ़ अली, जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया जैसे नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन को दिशा दी। यद्यपि सरकार ने कठोर दमन से आंदोलन को दबा दिया, किंतु इसने यह स्पष्ट कर दिया कि अब भारतीयों को अधिक समय तक गुलाम नहीं रखा जा सकता। 'करो या मरो' का नारा किसने दिया?
  1. Aराम मनोहर लोहिया
  2. Bजयप्रकाश नारायण
  3. Cमहात्मा गांधी
  4. Dअरुणा आसफ़ अली
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Correct answer: (C) महात्मा गांधी

Explanation

गद्यांश के अनुसार यह नारा महात्मा गांधी ने दिया।

Q77
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन भारतीय स्वतंत्रता संग्राम का एक निर्णायक मोड़ था। 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में कांग्रेस के अधिवेशन में यह प्रस्ताव पारित हुआ और महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया। अगले ही दिन अंग्रेज़ सरकार ने गांधीजी सहित कांग्रेस के लगभग सभी बड़े नेताओं को गिरफ़्तार कर लिया। नेतृत्व के अभाव में भी आंदोलन रुका नहीं, बल्कि जनता ने स्वयं इसकी बागडोर सँभाल ली। देश के अनेक भागों में हड़तालें हुईं, सरकारी दफ़्तरों और रेल-लाइनों को निशाना बनाया गया। कुछ स्थानों पर लोगों ने अपनी समानांतर सरकारें भी स्थापित कर लीं। अरुणा आसफ़ अली, जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया जैसे नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन को दिशा दी। यद्यपि सरकार ने कठोर दमन से आंदोलन को दबा दिया, किंतु इसने यह स्पष्ट कर दिया कि अब भारतीयों को अधिक समय तक गुलाम नहीं रखा जा सकता। गद्यांश के अनुसार असत्य कथन है —
  1. Aकुछ स्थानों पर समानांतर सरकारें बनीं।
  2. Bबड़े नेताओं की गिरफ़्तारी के बाद आंदोलन तुरंत समाप्त हो गया।
  3. Cप्रस्ताव 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में पारित हुआ।
  4. Dकई नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन चलाया।
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Correct answer: (B) बड़े नेताओं की गिरफ़्तारी के बाद आंदोलन तुरंत समाप्त हो गया।

Explanation

गद्यांश के अनुसार आंदोलन रुका नहीं; जनता ने बागडोर सँभाल ली।

Q78
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन भारतीय स्वतंत्रता संग्राम का एक निर्णायक मोड़ था। 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में कांग्रेस के अधिवेशन में यह प्रस्ताव पारित हुआ और महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया। अगले ही दिन अंग्रेज़ सरकार ने गांधीजी सहित कांग्रेस के लगभग सभी बड़े नेताओं को गिरफ़्तार कर लिया। नेतृत्व के अभाव में भी आंदोलन रुका नहीं, बल्कि जनता ने स्वयं इसकी बागडोर सँभाल ली। देश के अनेक भागों में हड़तालें हुईं, सरकारी दफ़्तरों और रेल-लाइनों को निशाना बनाया गया। कुछ स्थानों पर लोगों ने अपनी समानांतर सरकारें भी स्थापित कर लीं। अरुणा आसफ़ अली, जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया जैसे नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन को दिशा दी। यद्यपि सरकार ने कठोर दमन से आंदोलन को दबा दिया, किंतु इसने यह स्पष्ट कर दिया कि अब भारतीयों को अधिक समय तक गुलाम नहीं रखा जा सकता। 'बागडोर सँभालना' का अर्थ है —
  1. Aघोड़े की लगाम पकड़ना
  2. Bकाम छोड़ देना
  3. Cविरोध करना
  4. Dनेतृत्व अपने हाथ में लेना
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Correct answer: (D) नेतृत्व अपने हाथ में लेना

Explanation

बागडोर सँभालना = नेतृत्व/नियंत्रण अपने हाथ में लेना (लाक्षणिक अर्थ)।

Q79
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन भारतीय स्वतंत्रता संग्राम का एक निर्णायक मोड़ था। 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में कांग्रेस के अधिवेशन में यह प्रस्ताव पारित हुआ और महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया। अगले ही दिन अंग्रेज़ सरकार ने गांधीजी सहित कांग्रेस के लगभग सभी बड़े नेताओं को गिरफ़्तार कर लिया। नेतृत्व के अभाव में भी आंदोलन रुका नहीं, बल्कि जनता ने स्वयं इसकी बागडोर सँभाल ली। देश के अनेक भागों में हड़तालें हुईं, सरकारी दफ़्तरों और रेल-लाइनों को निशाना बनाया गया। कुछ स्थानों पर लोगों ने अपनी समानांतर सरकारें भी स्थापित कर लीं। अरुणा आसफ़ अली, जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया जैसे नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन को दिशा दी। यद्यपि सरकार ने कठोर दमन से आंदोलन को दबा दिया, किंतु इसने यह स्पष्ट कर दिया कि अब भारतीयों को अधिक समय तक गुलाम नहीं रखा जा सकता। 'दमन' शब्द का पर्यायवाची है —
  1. Aसमर्थन
  2. Bउत्पीड़न
  3. Cस्वतंत्रता
  4. Dसहयोग
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Correct answer: (B) उत्पीड़न

Explanation

दमन = कुचलना, उत्पीड़न।

Q80
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन भारतीय स्वतंत्रता संग्राम का एक निर्णायक मोड़ था। 8 अगस्त 1942 को मुंबई में कांग्रेस के अधिवेशन में यह प्रस्ताव पारित हुआ और महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया। अगले ही दिन अंग्रेज़ सरकार ने गांधीजी सहित कांग्रेस के लगभग सभी बड़े नेताओं को गिरफ़्तार कर लिया। नेतृत्व के अभाव में भी आंदोलन रुका नहीं, बल्कि जनता ने स्वयं इसकी बागडोर सँभाल ली। देश के अनेक भागों में हड़तालें हुईं, सरकारी दफ़्तरों और रेल-लाइनों को निशाना बनाया गया। कुछ स्थानों पर लोगों ने अपनी समानांतर सरकारें भी स्थापित कर लीं। अरुणा आसफ़ अली, जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया जैसे नेताओं ने भूमिगत रहकर आंदोलन को दिशा दी। यद्यपि सरकार ने कठोर दमन से आंदोलन को दबा दिया, किंतु इसने यह स्पष्ट कर दिया कि अब भारतीयों को अधिक समय तक गुलाम नहीं रखा जा सकता। गद्यांश के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक है —
  1. Aकांग्रेस का मुंबई अधिवेशन
  2. Bरेल-लाइनों पर हमला
  3. Cभूमिगत नेता
  4. Dभारत छोड़ो आंदोलन
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Correct answer: (D) भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन

Explanation

पूरा गद्यांश भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन पर है; बाकी विकल्प केवल एक अंश हैं।

English Language & Comprehension 20 questions

Q81
Each of the players ______ given a medal.
  1. Ahave been
  2. Bare
  3. Cwere
  4. Dwas
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Correct answer: (D) was

Explanation

'Each of' ke saath singular verb.

Q82
The police ______ arrested the thief.
  1. Ahas
  2. Bis
  3. Chave
  4. Dwas
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Correct answer: (C) have

Explanation

'Police' hamesha plural maana jaata hai → have.

Q83
He is senior ______ me in the office.
  1. Ato
  2. Bover
  3. Cthan
  4. Dfrom
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Correct answer: (A) to

Explanation

senior, junior, superior, inferior ke saath 'to'.

Q84
Don't make noise, ______?
  1. Adon't you
  2. Bwon't you
  3. Cdo you
  4. Dwill you
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Correct answer: (D) will you

Explanation

Negative imperative (Don't…) ke saath tag 'will you'. PGT 2024 mein 'Don't tell Henry, will you?' aaya tha.

Q85
Mathematics ______ my favourite subject.
  1. Awere
  2. Bhave been
  3. Cis
  4. Dare
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Correct answer: (C) is

Explanation

Mathematics, Physics, News dekhne mein plural, par singular hote hain.

Q86
Select the meaning of the idiom: To get a taste of one's own medicine
  1. ATo fall sick
  2. BTo be treated the same bad way one treats others
  3. CTo take bitter medicine
  4. DTo become a doctor
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Correct answer: (B) To be treated the same bad way one treats others

Explanation

Jaisi karni waisi bharni. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q87
Select the meaning of the idiom: To hit the nail on the head
  1. ATo fail in a task
  2. BTo hurt someone badly
  3. CTo say or do exactly the right thing
  4. DTo build a house
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Correct answer: (C) To say or do exactly the right thing

Explanation

Bilkul sahi baat kehna. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q88
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: Water is boiled in a large vessel. Q: Finally, the tea is strained and served hot. R: Tea leaves and sugar are added and allowed to simmer. S: Then milk is poured in and the mixture is brought to a boil again.
  1. APRSQ
  2. BPRQS
  3. CRPSQ
  4. DPSRQ
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) PRSQ

Explanation

Process ka order: paani ubaalo (P) → patti aur cheeni (R) → Then doodh (S) → Finally chhaano (Q).

Q89
Rearrange P, Q, R, S to form a meaningful paragraph. P: In 1969, the Apollo 11 mission landed on the Moon. Q: Since then, many countries have launched lunar missions. R: In 2023, India's Chandrayaan-3 landed near the Moon's south pole. S: Humans have always been fascinated by the Moon.
  1. ASPRQ
  2. BPSQR
  3. CSQPR
  4. DSPQR
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) SPQR

Explanation

General line (S) → 1969 (P) → Since then (Q) → 2023 (R).

Q90
Select the correctly spelt word.
  1. AConnoiseur
  2. BConnossieur
  3. CConnoisseur
  4. DConoisseur
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Correct answer: (C) Connoisseur

Explanation

Double n, double s: conn-oi-sseur. PYQs mein 3 baar.

Q91
The scientific study of insects
  1. AEntomology
  2. BEtymology
  3. CAnthropology
  4. DOrnithology
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Entomology

Explanation

Entomology = keede. Etymology = shabdon ki utpatti (trap). Ornithology = pakshi.

Q92
Select the synonym of: AUSTERE
  1. AAscetic
  2. BLavish
  3. CLuxurious
  4. DExtravagant
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Correct answer: (A) Ascetic

Explanation

Austere = saada, sanyami. PYQ (PGT 2022) mein answer Ascetic.

Q93
Select the antonym of: NONCHALANT
  1. AComposed
  2. BAnxious
  3. CIndifferent
  4. DCalm
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Correct answer: (B) Anxious

Explanation

Nonchalant = befikr. PYQs mein 2 baar, answer Anxious/Agitated.

Q94
Improve the bracketed part: He [insisted to go] there alone.
  1. Ainsisted going
  2. Binsisted on going
  3. Cinsisted for going
  4. DNo improvement
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Correct answer: (B) insisted on going

Explanation

insist on + V-ing.

Q95
Find the part with an error: The number of students (A) / in the class (B) / are increasing.
  1. A/ No error (D)
  2. BThe number of students (A)
  3. Cin the class (B)
  4. Dare increasing. (C)
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Correct answer: (C) in the class (B)

Explanation

'The number of' singular → is increasing.

Q96
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Stepwells of India Long before modern pipelines, people in the dry regions of western India built stepwells to store water. These were deep structures with flights of steps leading down to the water, allowing people to reach it even when the level fell during summer. Many stepwells were far more than practical reservoirs. Richly carved pillars, cool shaded galleries and small shrines turned them into places where villagers gathered, rested and prayed. The Rani ki Vav in Gujarat, built in the eleventh century, is so finely decorated that it is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. With the arrival of piped water and tube wells, most stepwells were abandoned and many were filled with garbage. Recently, however, local communities and conservation groups have begun cleaning and restoring them. Apart from protecting heritage, restored stepwells help recharge groundwater, a vital benefit in areas that face severe water shortage. Their revival reminds us that traditional knowledge can still offer practical answers to modern problems. Why were stepwells built?
  1. ATo defend villages from attacks
  2. BTo store water and reach it even when the level fell
  3. CTo be used as trade markets
  4. DTo serve as royal palaces
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) To store water and reach it even when the level fell

Explanation

Pehli do lines mein seedha reason diya hai.

Q97
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Stepwells of India Long before modern pipelines, people in the dry regions of western India built stepwells to store water. These were deep structures with flights of steps leading down to the water, allowing people to reach it even when the level fell during summer. Many stepwells were far more than practical reservoirs. Richly carved pillars, cool shaded galleries and small shrines turned them into places where villagers gathered, rested and prayed. The Rani ki Vav in Gujarat, built in the eleventh century, is so finely decorated that it is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. With the arrival of piped water and tube wells, most stepwells were abandoned and many were filled with garbage. Recently, however, local communities and conservation groups have begun cleaning and restoring them. Apart from protecting heritage, restored stepwells help recharge groundwater, a vital benefit in areas that face severe water shortage. Their revival reminds us that traditional knowledge can still offer practical answers to modern problems. Which statement about Rani ki Vav is TRUE according to the passage?
  1. AIt was built in the eighteenth century
  2. BIt is a UNESCO World Heritage Site
  3. CIt has no carvings
  4. DIt is located in Rajasthan
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site

Explanation

Passage: Gujarat, eleventh century, finely decorated, UNESCO site.

Q98
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Stepwells of India Long before modern pipelines, people in the dry regions of western India built stepwells to store water. These were deep structures with flights of steps leading down to the water, allowing people to reach it even when the level fell during summer. Many stepwells were far more than practical reservoirs. Richly carved pillars, cool shaded galleries and small shrines turned them into places where villagers gathered, rested and prayed. The Rani ki Vav in Gujarat, built in the eleventh century, is so finely decorated that it is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. With the arrival of piped water and tube wells, most stepwells were abandoned and many were filled with garbage. Recently, however, local communities and conservation groups have begun cleaning and restoring them. Apart from protecting heritage, restored stepwells help recharge groundwater, a vital benefit in areas that face severe water shortage. Their revival reminds us that traditional knowledge can still offer practical answers to modern problems. The word 'abandoned' in the passage means:
  1. Arepaired
  2. Bcrowded
  3. Cdeserted
  4. Ddecorated
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) deserted

Explanation

Abandoned = chhod diya gaya, deserted.

Q99
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Stepwells of India Long before modern pipelines, people in the dry regions of western India built stepwells to store water. These were deep structures with flights of steps leading down to the water, allowing people to reach it even when the level fell during summer. Many stepwells were far more than practical reservoirs. Richly carved pillars, cool shaded galleries and small shrines turned them into places where villagers gathered, rested and prayed. The Rani ki Vav in Gujarat, built in the eleventh century, is so finely decorated that it is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. With the arrival of piped water and tube wells, most stepwells were abandoned and many were filled with garbage. Recently, however, local communities and conservation groups have begun cleaning and restoring them. Apart from protecting heritage, restored stepwells help recharge groundwater, a vital benefit in areas that face severe water shortage. Their revival reminds us that traditional knowledge can still offer practical answers to modern problems. Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'vital'.
  1. Aessential
  2. Bunimportant
  3. Ccrucial
  4. Dnecessary
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) unimportant

Explanation

Vital = bahut zaroori. Ulta = unimportant.

Q100
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows. The Stepwells of India Long before modern pipelines, people in the dry regions of western India built stepwells to store water. These were deep structures with flights of steps leading down to the water, allowing people to reach it even when the level fell during summer. Many stepwells were far more than practical reservoirs. Richly carved pillars, cool shaded galleries and small shrines turned them into places where villagers gathered, rested and prayed. The Rani ki Vav in Gujarat, built in the eleventh century, is so finely decorated that it is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. With the arrival of piped water and tube wells, most stepwells were abandoned and many were filled with garbage. Recently, however, local communities and conservation groups have begun cleaning and restoring them. Apart from protecting heritage, restored stepwells help recharge groundwater, a vital benefit in areas that face severe water shortage. Their revival reminds us that traditional knowledge can still offer practical answers to modern problems. What lesson does the passage draw from the revival of stepwells?
  1. AOld buildings should be demolished
  2. BPiped water is harmful
  3. CTourism is the only benefit of heritage
  4. DTraditional knowledge can solve modern problems
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Traditional knowledge can solve modern problems

Explanation

Aakhri line ka message yahi hai.

Computer Science 90 questions

Q101
(2F)₁₆ + (1A)₁₆ = ?
  1. A(4A)₁₆
  2. B(49)₁₆
  3. C(39)₁₆
  4. D(59)₁₆
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) (49)₁₆

Explanation

47 + 26 = 73 = 0x49.

Q102
The sign-magnitude representation of −5 in 8 bits is:
  1. A11111011
  2. B11111010
  3. C00000101
  4. D10000101
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 10000101

Explanation

Sign bit 1, magnitude 0000101. (11111011 is 2's complement.)

Q103
A processor with a 32-bit address bus can address a maximum of:
  1. A64 KB
  2. B2 GB
  3. C32 GB
  4. D4 GB
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 4 GB

Explanation

2^32 bytes = 4 GB.

Q104
In a direct-mapped cache with 8 lines, main-memory block 25 maps to which line?
  1. A5
  2. B3
  3. C1
  4. D0
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 1

Explanation

25 mod 8 = 1.

Q105
In a microprogrammed control unit, microinstructions are stored in:
  1. ACache
  2. BControl memory
  3. CRegisters only
  4. DMain memory
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Control memory

Explanation

The control unit reads its control signals from control memory.

Q106
The ideal speedup of a k-stage pipeline for a very large number of instructions approaches:
  1. Ak
  2. B2k
  3. Ck^2
  4. D1
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) k

Explanation

n·k / (k + n − 1) → k as n grows.

Q107
In little-endian byte ordering:
  1. ABytes are stored randomly
  2. BOnly even addresses are used
  3. CThe most significant byte is stored at the lowest address
  4. DThe least significant byte is stored at the lowest address
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) The least significant byte is stored at the lowest address

Explanation

Intel x86 is little-endian.

Q108
Which bus is unidirectional (from CPU to memory/devices)?
  1. AAddress bus
  2. BData bus
  3. CBoth address and data bus
  4. DNeither
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Address bus

Explanation

The data bus is bidirectional.

Q109
One nanosecond is equal to:
  1. A10^-12 seconds
  2. B10^-3 seconds
  3. C10^-6 seconds
  4. D10^-9 seconds
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 10^-9 seconds

Explanation

milli 10^-3, micro 10^-6, nano 10^-9, pico 10^-12.

Q110
The output of a NOR gate is 1 only when:
  1. AAll inputs are 1
  2. BAll inputs are 0
  3. CAny input is 1
  4. DInputs are different
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) All inputs are 0

Explanation

NOR = NOT of OR.

Q111
(A + B)(A + B') simplifies to:
  1. AAB
  2. BB
  3. CA + B
  4. DA
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) A

Explanation

A + BB' = A + 0 = A.

Q112
Minimum number of NOR gates needed to implement an OR gate:
  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C4
  4. D2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 2

Explanation

A NOR followed by a NOR used as an inverter.

Q113
A T flip-flop with T = 1 can be used as a:
  1. ADecoder
  2. BFrequency multiplier
  3. CMemory of 2 bits
  4. DFrequency divider by 2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Frequency divider by 2

Explanation

It toggles every clock, halving the frequency.

Q114
A 4-bit ripple counter uses flip-flops with 10 ns propagation delay each. The maximum clock frequency is about:
  1. A25 MHz
  2. B40 MHz
  3. C100 MHz
  4. D10 MHz
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 25 MHz

Explanation

Total delay 4 × 10 = 40 ns → 1/40 ns = 25 MHz.

Q115
An 8-to-3 priority encoder (D7 highest) has D5 and D2 both equal to 1. The output is:
  1. A011
  2. B111
  3. C010
  4. D101
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 101

Explanation

The highest active input D5 → binary 101.

Q116
Non-preemptive priority scheduling (lower number = higher priority), all at time 0: P1 (burst 10, pri 3), P2 (1, 1), P3 (2, 4), P4 (1, 5), P5 (5, 2). Average waiting time is:
  1. A8.2
  2. B9.6
  3. C6.4
  4. D7.2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 8.2

Explanation

Order P2, P5, P1, P3, P4 → waits 0, 1, 6, 16, 18 → 41/5 = 8.2.

Q117
TLB access 20 ns, memory access 100 ns, TLB hit ratio 80%. Effective memory access time (single-level paging) is:
  1. A120 ns
  2. B100 ns
  3. C220 ns
  4. D140 ns
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 140 ns

Explanation

0.8 × 120 + 0.2 × 220 = 96 + 44 = 140 ns.

Q118
In the Banker's algorithm, a state is safe if:
  1. ANo process is waiting
  2. BEvery process holds at least one resource
  3. CAll resources are free
  4. DThere exists a sequence in which all processes can finish
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) There exists a sequence in which all processes can finish

Explanation

Need = Max − Allocation must be satisfiable in some order.

Q119
Which concept is used to control thrashing?
  1. ASpooling
  2. BContext switching
  3. CWorking-set model
  4. DSwapping only
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Working-set model

Explanation

Allocate frames to cover each process's working set.

Q120
The Readers–Writers problem is an example of a:
  1. AProcess synchronisation problem
  2. BMemory allocation problem
  3. CPage replacement problem
  4. DDisk scheduling problem
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Process synchronisation problem

Explanation

Like bounded buffer and dining philosophers.

Q121
During a context switch, the state of the old process is saved in its:
  1. AFile descriptor table
  2. BPage table only
  3. CProcess Control Block (PCB)
  4. DTLB
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Process Control Block (PCB)

Explanation

The PCB stores registers, PC and state.

Q122
An operating system that must respond within strict deadlines is a:
  1. ABatch OS
  2. BTime-sharing OS
  3. CHard real-time OS
  4. DDistributed OS
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Hard real-time OS

Explanation

Missing a deadline in a hard real-time system is a failure.

Q123
The Linux command chmod 754 file gives which permissions?
  1. Arwxr-xr--
  2. Brw-r-xr--
  3. Crwxr--r-x
  4. Drwxrwxr--
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) rwxr-xr--

Explanation

7 = rwx, 5 = r-x, 4 = r--.

Q124
In a flowchart, the parallelogram symbol is used for:
  1. AConnector
  2. BInput/Output
  3. CProcessing
  4. DDecision
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Input/Output

Explanation

Oval – start/end, rectangle – process, diamond – decision.

Q125
Which compiler phase converts source code into tokens?
  1. ASemantic analysis
  2. BSyntax analysis
  3. CLexical analysis
  4. DCode generation
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Lexical analysis

Explanation

The lexer produces tokens; the parser builds a parse tree.

Q126
Which of the following is a fourth-generation language (4GL)?
  1. AAssembly
  2. BC
  3. CSQL
  4. DMachine code
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) SQL

Explanation

4GLs are non-procedural/query languages like SQL.

Q127
What is the output? int i = 0; while (i++ < 3) printf("%d", i);
  1. A012
  2. B1234
  3. C0123
  4. D123
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 123

Explanation

Checks 0 < 3 then prints 1; 1 < 3 prints 2; 2 < 3 prints 3; 3 < 3 fails.

Q128
What is the output (assume int is 4 bytes)? printf("%d", (int)(sizeof(int) * 2));
  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C8
  4. D16
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 8

Explanation

4 × 2 = 8.

Q129
What is the output? int a[] = {5, 10, 15}; int *p = a; printf("%d", *(p + 2) - *p);
  1. A5
  2. B2
  3. C15
  4. D10
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 10

Explanation

a[2] − a[0] = 15 − 5 = 10.

Q130
What is the output? char str[] = "ABC"; str[1] = 'X'; printf("%s", str);
  1. AABC
  2. BABX
  3. CAXC
  4. DXBC
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) AXC

Explanation

A char array can be modified; index 1 becomes X.

Q131
What is the value of x? int x = 3; x *= 2 + 1;
  1. A5
  2. B7
  3. C6
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 9

Explanation

x *= (2 + 1) → x = 3 × 3 = 9.

Q132
What is the output? int f(int n) { return n == 0 ? 0 : n + f(n - 1); } printf("%d", f(4));
  1. A4
  2. B10
  3. C24
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 10

Explanation

4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 0 = 10.

Q133
What is the output? int a = 1; a = a << 2; printf("%d", a);
  1. A8
  2. B1
  3. C4
  4. D2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 4

Explanation

Left shift by 2 multiplies by 4.

Q134
What is the size of the union (assume int is 4 bytes)? union U { int i; char c[8]; };
  1. A1 byte
  2. B8 bytes
  3. C12 bytes
  4. D4 bytes
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 8 bytes

Explanation

A union's size equals its largest member (8).

Q135
In C++, cin >> x uses which operator?
  1. AScope resolution operator
  2. BExtraction operator
  3. CDereference operator
  4. DInsertion operator
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Extraction operator

Explanation

>> is extraction (input); << is insertion (output).

Q136
The main purpose of an inline function in C++ is to:
  1. AHide data
  2. BAllocate memory
  3. CReduce function-call overhead
  4. DAllow recursion
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Reduce function-call overhead

Explanation

The compiler may replace the call with the function body.

Q137
Java supports multiple inheritance of type through:
  1. AInterfaces
  2. BPackages
  3. CAbstract classes only
  4. DFinal classes
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Interfaces

Explanation

A class can implement many interfaces but extend only one class.

Q138
The correct signature of the main method in Java is:
  1. Astatic int main(String args)
  2. Bpublic static void main(String[] args)
  3. Cvoid main(String args[]) private
  4. Dpublic void main()
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) public static void main(String[] args)

Explanation

It must be public, static, void and take a String array.

Q139
In Java, the this keyword refers to:
  1. AA static method
  2. BThe parent class
  3. CThe current object
  4. DThe main class
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) The current object

Explanation

super refers to the parent class.

Q140
ArrayList belongs to which Java package?
  1. Ajava.io
  2. Bjava.net
  3. Cjava.util
  4. Djava.lang
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) java.util

Explanation

Collections framework classes are in java.util.

Q141
What is the output of the Java code? int[] a = new int[3]; System.out.println(a[1]);
  1. A0
  2. Bnull
  3. CGarbage value
  4. DCompile error
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 0

Explanation

Java arrays of int are initialised to 0.

Q142
What is the output of print("ab" * 3)?
  1. Aab3
  2. BError
  3. Cababab
  4. Da b a b a b
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) ababab

Explanation

* repeats a string.

Q143
What is the output? d = {'a': 1, 'b': 2} print(d.get('c', 0))
  1. ANone
  2. BKeyError
  3. C0
  4. D2
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 0

Explanation

get() returns the default when the key is missing.

Q144
A pandas Series is a:
  1. APython dictionary only
  2. BOne-dimensional labelled array
  3. CTwo-dimensional table
  4. DThree-dimensional cube
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) One-dimensional labelled array

Explanation

A DataFrame is two-dimensional.

Q145
The postfix form of (A + B) * (C − D) is:
  1. AAB+CD−*
  2. BA+BC−D*
  3. CABCD+−*
  4. DAB+C*D−
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) AB+CD−*

Explanation

Convert each bracket, then the operator: AB+ CD− *.

Q146
The minimum height of a binary tree with 15 nodes (root at height 0) is:
  1. A7
  2. B4
  3. C3
  4. D14
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) 3

Explanation

A perfect binary tree of height 3 has 15 nodes.

Q147
Maximum comparisons needed by binary search on 1000 sorted elements:
  1. A500
  2. B10
  3. C1000
  4. D9
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 10

Explanation

⌈log2(1001)⌉ = 10.

Q148
The auxiliary space complexity of standard Merge Sort is:
  1. AO(1)
  2. BO(log n)
  3. CO(n)
  4. DO(n^2)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) O(n)

Explanation

Merging needs a temporary array.

Q149
Topological sorting can be performed only on a:
  1. AUndirected graph
  2. BGraph with cycles
  3. CComplete graph
  4. DDirected acyclic graph (DAG)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Directed acyclic graph (DAG)

Explanation

A cycle makes a linear ordering impossible.

Q150
A major advantage of a linked list over an array is:
  1. ABetter cache performance
  2. BLess memory per element
  3. CDynamic size and easy insertion/deletion
  4. DRandom access by index
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Dynamic size and easy insertion/deletion

Explanation

Arrays allow O(1) random access; linked lists do not.

Q151
Root A has children B and C; B has children D and E; C has child F. The preorder traversal is:
  1. AD E B F C A
  2. BA B C D E F
  3. CD B E A F C
  4. DA B D E C F
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) A B D E C F

Explanation

Root, left, right.

Q152
The load factor of a hash table is defined as:
  1. ANumber of empty slots
  2. BNumber of keys / table size
  3. CTable size / number of keys
  4. DNumber of collisions
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Number of keys / table size

Explanation

α = n / m.

Q153
Which statement about COUNT(*) is correct?
  1. AIt counts only distinct rows
  2. BIt counts only columns
  3. CIt ignores rows with NULL values
  4. DIt counts all rows including rows with NULL values
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) It counts all rows including rows with NULL values

Explanation

COUNT(column) ignores NULLs; COUNT(*) does not.

Q154
A relation is in 1NF if:
  1. AIt has no transitive dependency
  2. BAll attribute values are atomic
  3. CEvery determinant is a key
  4. DIt has no partial dependency
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) All attribute values are atomic

Explanation

No repeating groups or multi-valued cells.

Q155
In an ER diagram, a diamond represents:
  1. AA relationship
  2. BA primary key
  3. CAn entity
  4. DAn attribute
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) A relationship

Explanation

Rectangle – entity, ellipse – attribute.

Q156
Which of the following is a DML command?
  1. AGRANT
  2. BDROP
  3. CUPDATE
  4. DCREATE
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) UPDATE

Explanation

DML: SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE.

Q157
A view in SQL is a:
  1. APhysical copy of a table
  2. BType of index
  3. CVirtual table based on a query
  4. DStored procedure
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Virtual table based on a query

Explanation

It stores the query, not the data.

Q158
Conflict serializability of a schedule is tested using a:
  1. AER diagram
  2. BPrecedence graph
  3. CB+ tree
  4. DHash index
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Precedence graph

Explanation

Acyclic precedence graph → conflict serializable.

Q159
Relation R has 3 tuples and S has 4 tuples. R × S (Cartesian product) has how many tuples?
  1. A12
  2. B7
  3. C4
  4. D3
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 12

Explanation

3 × 4 = 12.

Q160
An index in a database is mainly used to:
  1. ASpeed up data retrieval
  2. BBack up data
  3. CStore duplicate data
  4. DEncrypt tables
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Speed up data retrieval

Explanation

Indexes reduce search time at some storage cost.

Q161
The data unit at the data link layer is called a:
  1. AMessage
  2. BFrame
  3. CPacket
  4. DSegment
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Frame

Explanation

Physical – bits; data link – frames; network – packets.

Q162
The subnet mask for a /21 network is:
  1. A255.255.248.0
  2. B255.255.255.248
  3. C255.255.240.0
  4. D255.255.252.0
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) 255.255.248.0

Explanation

21 bits: 8 + 8 + 5 → third octet 11111000 = 248.

Q163
Telnet uses which port?
  1. A21
  2. B25
  3. C22
  4. D23
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 23

Explanation

SSH uses 22 (secure); Telnet 23 (unencrypted).

Q164
Which technique translates private IP addresses to a public IP address?
  1. ADNS
  2. BNAT
  3. CDHCP
  4. DARP
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) NAT

Explanation

Network Address Translation.

Q165
OSPF is a:
  1. ALink-state routing protocol
  2. BDistance-vector protocol
  3. CPath-vector protocol
  4. DStatic routing method
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Link-state routing protocol

Explanation

It uses Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm.

Q166
A device that connects networks using different protocols is a:
  1. AGateway
  2. BSwitch
  3. CHub
  4. DRepeater
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Gateway

Explanation

Gateways perform protocol conversion.

Q167
The Caesar cipher is an example of:
  1. AHash function
  2. BTransposition cipher
  3. CPublic-key cipher
  4. DSubstitution cipher
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) Substitution cipher

Explanation

Each letter is shifted by a fixed number.

Q168
Encryption, compression and data translation are functions of which OSI layer?
  1. APresentation
  2. BApplication
  3. CSession
  4. DTransport
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Presentation

Explanation

Layer 6 deals with data representation.

Q169
127.0.0.1 is known as the:
  1. ALoopback address
  2. BPrivate Class C address
  3. CDefault gateway
  4. DBroadcast address
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Loopback address

Explanation

It refers to the local host itself.

Q170
A walkie-talkie is an example of which transmission mode?
  1. AHalf duplex
  2. BMultiplex
  3. CSimplex
  4. DFull duplex
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) Half duplex

Explanation

Both can talk, but not at the same time.

Q171
How many links are needed to connect 6 devices in a full mesh topology?
  1. A30
  2. B15
  3. C12
  4. D36
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) 15

Explanation

n(n − 1)/2 = 6 × 5 / 2 = 15.

Q172
Which attribute of the HTML img tag specifies alternate text?
  1. Asrc
  2. Balt
  3. Ctitle
  4. Dname
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) alt

Explanation

alt text is shown when the image fails to load and helps accessibility.

Q173
Which CSS has the highest priority (ignoring !important)?
  1. ABrowser default
  2. BInline style
  3. CExternal style sheet
  4. DInternal style sheet
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Inline style

Explanation

Inline > internal/external (by order) > browser default.

Q174
In JavaScript, what does [1, 2, 3].push(4) return?
  1. Aundefined
  2. B3
  3. C[1, 2, 3, 4]
  4. D4 (the new length)
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (D) 4 (the new length)

Explanation

push() returns the new length of the array.

Q175
Which HTML5 semantic element is meant for navigation links?
  1. A<nav>
  2. B<menu>
  3. C<navigate>
  4. D<links>
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (A) <nav>

Explanation

Others include header, footer, section, article.

Q176
XSLT is used to:
  1. AQuery SQL databases
  2. BTransform XML documents
  3. CStyle HTML pages only
  4. DCompress images
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) Transform XML documents

Explanation

XSLT converts XML into HTML, text or other XML.

Q177
Which JavaScript event fires when a user clicks an element?
  1. Aonload
  2. Bonclick
  3. Conhover
  4. Donchange
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (B) onclick

Explanation

onload – page loaded; onchange – value changed.

Q178
HTTP status code 404 means:
  1. AForbidden
  2. BInternal Server Error
  3. CNot Found
  4. DOK
Show answerHide answer

Correct answer: (C) Not Found

Explanation

200 OK, 403 Forbidden, 404 Not Found, 500 Server Error.

Q179
Which SDLC model emphasises very short development cycles using reusable components?
  1. ARAD model
  2. BWaterfall model
  3. CSpiral model
  4. DV-model
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Correct answer: (A) RAD model

Explanation

Rapid Application Development.

Q180
Equivalence partitioning is a:
  1. ADebugging tool
  2. BWhite-box testing technique
  3. CCode review method
  4. DBlack-box testing technique
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Correct answer: (D) Black-box testing technique

Explanation

Inputs are divided into classes expected to behave alike.

Q181
Beta testing is performed by:
  1. AOnly automated tools
  2. BReal users at the customer's site
  3. CThe compiler
  4. DDevelopers at the developer's site
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Correct answer: (B) Real users at the customer's site

Explanation

Alpha testing is done at the developer's site.

Q182
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is equal to:
  1. AMTTF × MTTR
  2. BMTTF + MTTR
  3. CMTTR / MTTF
  4. DMTTF − MTTR
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Correct answer: (B) MTTF + MTTR

Explanation

Mean time to failure plus mean time to repair.

Q183
Which UML diagram shows actors and the functions they use?
  1. AClass diagram
  2. BUse case diagram
  3. CState diagram
  4. DSequence diagram
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Correct answer: (B) Use case diagram

Explanation

It captures functional requirements.

Q184
The main output of the requirement analysis phase is the:
  1. ASource code
  2. BUser manual
  3. CTest cases only
  4. DSRS document
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Correct answer: (D) SRS document

Explanation

Software Requirements Specification.

Q185
Which type of cohesion is considered the worst?
  1. AFunctional
  2. BCommunicational
  3. CSequential
  4. DCoincidental
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Correct answer: (D) Coincidental

Explanation

Unrelated tasks grouped together.

Q186
In a raster-scan display, the image is drawn:
  1. AOnly in one colour
  2. BUsing only vectors
  3. CRandomly on the screen
  4. DLine by line from top to bottom
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Correct answer: (D) Line by line from top to bottom

Explanation

The beam sweeps each scan line in turn.

Q187
Smoothly transforming one image into another is called:
  1. AClipping
  2. BMorphing
  3. CRendering
  4. DShading
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Correct answer: (B) Morphing

Explanation

Used in films and animation.

Q188
JPEG is an example of which type of compression?
  1. ALossy
  2. BText compression
  3. CNo compression
  4. DLossless
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Correct answer: (A) Lossy

Explanation

PNG and GIF are lossless.

Q189
Overlaying digital information on the real-world view is called:
  1. AVirtual Reality
  2. BCloud Computing
  3. CMachine Learning
  4. DAugmented Reality
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Correct answer: (D) Augmented Reality

Explanation

VR replaces the real world with a fully virtual one.

Q190
Under the IT Act 2000, publishing or transmitting obscene material electronically is punishable under:
  1. ASection 65
  2. BSection 43
  3. CSection 67
  4. DSection 66A
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Correct answer: (C) Section 67

Explanation

Section 65 deals with tampering with source documents.

Teaching Methodology 10 questions

Q191
According to Piaget, the formal operational stage begins at about:
  1. A7 years
  2. B11 years
  3. C18 years
  4. D2 years
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Correct answer: (B) 11 years

Explanation

Abstract and hypothetical thinking develops.

Q192
A question asking students to 'differentiate between' two concepts targets which level of Bloom's taxonomy?
  1. ARemembering
  2. BCreating
  3. CApplying
  4. DAnalysing
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Correct answer: (D) Analysing

Explanation

Differentiate, compare, organise are analysing verbs.

Q193
The first of Gagne's nine events of instruction is:
  1. AGaining attention
  2. BAssessing performance
  3. CPresenting the stimulus
  4. DProviding feedback
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Correct answer: (A) Gaining attention

Explanation

Lessons begin by capturing learners' attention.

Q194
Constructivism holds that learners:
  1. ACannot learn from peers
  2. BLearn only through punishment
  3. CReceive knowledge passively
  4. DActively construct their own knowledge
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Correct answer: (D) Actively construct their own knowledge

Explanation

New knowledge is built on prior experience.

Q195
CCE stands for:
  1. ACommon Course Examination
  2. BContinuous and Comprehensive Evaluation
  3. CCentral Curriculum Evaluation
  4. DContinuous Classroom Examination
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Correct answer: (B) Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation

Explanation

It covers scholastic and co-scholastic areas.

Q196
The concept of 'mastery learning' was given by:
  1. AJerome Bruner
  2. BBenjamin Bloom
  3. CJean Piaget
  4. DCarl Rogers
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Correct answer: (B) Benjamin Bloom

Explanation

Learners move on only after mastering the current unit.

Q197
In a flipped classroom:
  1. AThe teacher lectures for the whole period
  2. BStudents study content at home and practise in class
  3. CStudents never use technology
  4. DHomework is removed
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Correct answer: (B) Students study content at home and practise in class

Explanation

Class time is used for discussion and problem solving.

Q198
The first stage of Kolb's experiential learning cycle is:
  1. AConcrete experience
  2. BActive experimentation
  3. CAbstract conceptualisation
  4. DReflective observation
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Correct answer: (A) Concrete experience

Explanation

Experience → reflection → concept → experimentation.

Q199
PARAKH, set up under NEP 2020, is a:
  1. AScholarship scheme
  2. BTeacher training college
  3. CNational assessment centre
  4. DTextbook board
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Correct answer: (C) National assessment centre

Explanation

Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development.

Q200
The best strategy for gifted learners in a regular classroom is:
  1. ARepeating the same exercises
  2. BIgnoring them
  3. CEnrichment activities
  4. DDetaining them
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Correct answer: (C) Enrichment activities

Explanation

Enrichment adds depth and challenge.

Practise it as a real test

Reading answers is not the same as solving under time pressure. Attempt DSSSB TGT Computer Science Full Mock Test 4 online with the real 120-minute timer and marking scheme to get your score and all-India rank, or browse the other tests in the DSSSB TGT Computer Science Mock Test & Previous Year Papers.